Introduction: A License to Cut, Not to Drift — Why Cosmetology Requires Clarity and Commitment
“Jack of all trades, master of none.”
This old saying echoes through the halls of every vocational institution, whispered by instructors and career advisors to students trying to do it all—especially in cosmetology. In an industry that celebrates beauty, precision, and specialization, the pressure to “learn everything” can be both tempting and disastrous.
At first glance, a full cosmetology license seems like the holy grail of the beauty world. It gives you legal access to perform everything from haircuts and hair coloring to manicures, pedicures, waxing, facials, and more. For many, this breadth of coverage is seen as a one-size-fits-all career solution. But here’s the reality: over 70% of licensed cosmetologists today are no longer working in the field they trained for. And those who are, often never needed the full license in the first place.
So why is this happening?
And how can you avoid becoming another statistic?
The Cosmetology Trap: Long Hours, High Cost, Uncertain Outcome
Cosmetology programs often require more than 1,500 hours of education—nearly double or triple what it takes to become licensed in nails, esthetics, or instructor training. In many cases, students are pushed into full cosmetology by advisors, friends, or schools promising that “you can always decide later what you like.”
That advice sounds good—until the student is halfway through the program, thousands of dollars in debt, unsure of their passion, and not yet employable.
At Louisville Beauty Academy, we take a radically different approach:
We don’t recommend the cosmetology license unless you’re certain you want to cut and style hair for life. Why? Because the other specialized licenses—nail technician, esthetics, shampoo styling—are faster, more affordable, and directly aligned with specific, high-demand services.
This book—and this school—exists to break the myth that longer, broader licenses equal better outcomes. They don’t. Not if your passion and path are specific.
The Value of Specialization in a Rapidly Evolving Industry
Look at today’s market:
- Drybar built a global brand around blowouts.
- Botox clinics and dermatology centers rely on estheticians for pre- and post-treatment skincare.
- Nail salons, especially those powered by immigrant entrepreneurs, are cornerstones of community economy.
None of these require a cosmetology license. They require specialization.
The only service the cosmetology license uniquely allows you to do is cut hair—period. If hair is your passion, your art form, your life’s expression, then you are in the right place. But if it’s not, this license may waste your time and money.
Let us be clear: this book is not to discourage. It’s to illuminate. Cosmetology is a beautiful career path—when pursued with clarity and purpose.
Louisville Beauty Academy: More Than a School — A Family and Mission
Our school is built on love, discipline, and deep care for every student. We don’t sell licenses. We build lives.
Founded by Di Tran—an immigrant, engineer, licensed nail technician, salon owner, and lifelong advocate for vocational education—Louisville Beauty Academy is one of Kentucky’s most unique beauty schools. We are:
- State-Licensed
- State-Accredited
- Debt-Free Focused (Cash-pay model)
- Veteran-led in management and training
- Spiritually grounded in respect, community, and action
Here, each graduate is a life investment. Our instructors often sweep the floor with students. Di Tran himself is often leaf-blowing the front entrance at 5 a.m. Our model isn’t just about passing exams—it’s about preparing for a career, for a future, and for serving others.
If you are pursuing your cosmetology license through Louisville Beauty Academy or beyond, this guide is your roadmap to passing the PSI Theory Licensing Exam.
A Realistic Look at Cosmetology Career Paths
It’s time we stop misleading students with vague dreams of “doing everything.” The reality:
- Nail technicians often earn more per hour than general cosmetologists.
- Licensed estheticians are hired into dermatology clinics, spas, and even medical facilities.
- Blow-dry stylists are booked out months in advance without ever needing a haircutting license.
But cutting hair—the core of cosmetology—is an art, a discipline, and a calling. It is not a backup plan. If that’s your passion, then congratulations: you are on the right path.
For everyone else, this book might help you decide whether to pivot early toward something more focused.
How to Use This Book
This prep guide is based entirely on PSI’s official cosmetology exam framework used in Kentucky and many other states. Each chapter mirrors an exam domain and includes:
- Definitions
- Core concepts
- Sample questions
- Detailed answer explanations
- Real-world tips from instructors and professionals
The exam isn’t just about memorizing. It’s about understanding. That’s why we break everything down clearly, with real reasoning—not just right or wrong.
Whether you are:
- A first-time test taker
- A student halfway through your program
- A returning professional seeking licensure
This book is your companion to exam success.
Why This Book is Different
There are many cosmetology prep books out there. Most are mass-produced, with generic content and dry summaries. This book is different because:
- It’s written by real instructors who teach daily.
- It’s backed by Louisville Beauty Academy’s proven system.
- It includes hundreds of questions with clear explanations.
- It’s part of a mission—to create debt-free, purpose-driven professionals.
You are not just a number to us. You are a future business owner, stylist, educator, or leader. We care deeply about how you enter this industry, and how long you stay in it.
Let’s Be Honest: Cosmetology Isn’t for Everyone
This book—and this journey—is not for those hoping to “figure it out later.” Cosmetology is for the dedicated, the artistic, the disciplined. If that’s not you, we urge you to explore nail tech or esthetics. You’ll spend less, learn faster, and serve clients more effectively.
If you know haircutting is your passion—your path—then let’s do this.
Final Words Before We Begin
You have likely heard that the beauty industry is easy. It’s not.
It is deeply human. It’s physically demanding. It’s emotionally taxing. And it is beautifully rewarding for those who love it.
At Louisville Beauty Academy, we believe in grace, love, and clarity.
We expect failure—but only as a stepping stone to mastery.
We don’t sugarcoat, and we don’t abandon.
Let’s get started.
Let’s pass this exam.
Let’s enter this field with confidence, care, and clarity.
— Di Tran and the Louisville Beauty Academy Family
Chapter 1: Infection Control & Safety
Infection control is foundational in cosmetology. Understanding and properly applying sanitation, disinfection, and sterilization practices is not just about passing your licensing exam—it’s about protecting yourself, your clients, and your business. This chapter provides deep coverage of infection control essentials and prepares you for one of the most frequently tested categories on the PSI Cosmetology Theory Licensing Exam.
Practice Questions with Answers and Explanations
1. What is the lowest level of decontamination?
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Sanitation
D. Pathogen removal
Correct Answer: C. Sanitation
Explanation: Sanitation is the basic level of cleaning, involving the physical removal of dirt and debris. While it reduces the number of pathogens, it does not kill all microbes, unlike disinfection or sterilization.
2. What level of decontamination is required for tools that come into contact with blood or body fluids?
A. Sanitation
B. Rinsing with warm water
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
Correct Answer: D. Sterilization
Explanation: Tools exposed to blood or body fluids must be sterilized to kill all microorganisms, including spores. This is the highest level of decontamination.
3. Which of the following best describes disinfection?
A. Removal of all dirt and debris
B. Complete destruction of all microbial life
C. Killing most pathogens on nonporous surfaces
D. Use of soap and water
Correct Answer: C. Killing most pathogens on nonporous surfaces
Explanation: Disinfection kills most disease-causing microorganisms (excluding spores) and is typically used on nonporous tools and surfaces.
4. What type of disinfectant is best for salon tools?
A. Household bleach
B. Alcohol
C. EPA-registered disinfectant
D. Detergent
Correct Answer: C. EPA-registered disinfectant
Explanation: EPA-registered disinfectants are approved for use in salons and are effective against bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
5. What does PPE stand for?
A. Public Protection Equipment
B. Pathogen Prevention Equipment
C. Personal Protective Equipment
D. Pathogen Processing Environment
Correct Answer: C. Personal Protective Equipment
Explanation: PPE refers to gloves, goggles, masks, or other protective items used to protect professionals from exposure to infectious agents.
6. What agency sets the safety standards for the workplace, including salons?
A. EPA
B. FDA
C. CDC
D. OSHA
Correct Answer: D. OSHA
Explanation: OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) enforces workplace safety standards, including those related to chemical exposure and bloodborne pathogens in salons.
7. What is the purpose of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
A. To advertise new products
B. To instruct on retailing products
C. To provide safety information on chemicals used in the salon
D. To license salon professionals
Correct Answer: C. To provide safety information on chemicals used in the salon
Explanation: SDS includes information on the safe use, storage, handling, and disposal of chemical products. OSHA requires it for all hazardous substances in the workplace.
8. Which type of microorganism is the most resistant and can survive harsh conditions?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Bacterial spores
Correct Answer: D. Bacterial spores
Explanation: Spores can withstand extreme environments and are only destroyed through sterilization, not disinfection.
9. How often should tools be disinfected between clients?
A. Once daily
B. Weekly
C. Before and after each client
D. At the end of the workday
Correct Answer: C. Before and after each client
Explanation: Disinfecting tools before and after each use ensures client safety and prevents the spread of infections.
10. Which of the following is an example of a single-use item?
A. Nail file
B. Metal pusher
C. Shears
D. Clippers
Correct Answer: A. Nail file
Explanation: Nail files are porous and cannot be properly disinfected. They must be discarded after each use.
11. Which method of decontamination kills all microbial life, including spores?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Boiling water
D. Sterilization
Correct Answer: D. Sterilization
Explanation: Sterilization is the only method that completely destroys all forms of microbial life, including spores. It is typically achieved using autoclaves or dry heat sterilizers.
12. When should gloves be worn during a service?
A. Only if the client requests
B. Only when working with chemicals
C. When contact with blood or body fluids is possible
D. When using heat styling tools
Correct Answer: C. When contact with blood or body fluids is possible
Explanation: Gloves are a key part of PPE and must be worn when there is a risk of contact with bodily fluids to prevent the transmission of disease.
13. What is the correct procedure if a client is accidentally cut during a service?
A. Continue service and inform client later
B. Immediately disinfect the area and tool, apply gloves, and follow blood exposure protocol
C. Ignore it if the cut is small
D. Ask the client to sign a waiver
Correct Answer: B. Immediately disinfect the area and tool, apply gloves, and follow blood exposure protocol
Explanation: Any exposure to blood requires immediate action—disinfecting the area, wearing gloves, stopping service, and following the state board’s blood spill procedure.
14. What does OSHA require in the event of a workplace chemical spill?
A. Ignore if no injuries occur
B. Immediately notify the local fire department
C. Refer to the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) and follow proper procedures
D. Post on social media
Correct Answer: C. Refer to the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) and follow proper procedures
Explanation: OSHA mandates that all employees follow SDS guidance for chemical handling, including spills, to ensure safety and legal compliance.
15. Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
A. Autoclave
B. UV light sanitizer
C. Dry heat
D. Chemical vapor
Correct Answer: B. UV light sanitizer
Explanation: UV sanitizers reduce microbial presence but do not sterilize. Only autoclaves, dry heat, and chemical vapors can achieve sterilization.
16. Why is handwashing considered the most important part of infection control?
A. It makes your hands smell better
B. It protects only the client
C. It removes dirt and reduces microbial count
D. It is only required at the end of the day
Correct Answer: C. It removes dirt and reduces microbial count
Explanation: Proper hand hygiene reduces the spread of pathogens and is essential before and after every client service.
17. How long should tools remain immersed in disinfectant according to manufacturer instructions?
A. 10 seconds
B. Until they look clean
C. As directed on the disinfectant label
D. Overnight
Correct Answer: C. As directed on the disinfectant label
Explanation: Over- or under-exposing tools in disinfectant may reduce effectiveness or damage tools. Always follow the manufacturer’s time and dilution instructions.
18. What is a characteristic of a disinfectant that is hospital-grade?
A. It smells good
B. It can clean floors only
C. It is effective against HIV, HBV, and tuberculosis
D. It evaporates quickly
Correct Answer: C. It is effective against HIV, HBV, and tuberculosis
Explanation: Hospital-grade disinfectants meet a higher standard and are capable of killing more resistant pathogens, including bloodborne viruses.
19. When disposing of materials exposed to blood, they should be:
A. Thrown in the regular trash
B. Given to the client
C. Placed in a labeled, sealed, double-bagged container
D. Burned
Correct Answer: C. Placed in a labeled, sealed, double-bagged container
Explanation: Contaminated items must be disposed of safely to avoid exposure. A labeled, sealed, and double-bagged method ensures proper biohazard containment.
20. What must a salon do with all used single-use items after a service?
A. Rinse and reuse them
B. Spray with alcohol and store
C. Discard them immediately
D. Autoclave them
Correct Answer: C. Discard them immediately
Explanation: Single-use (disposable) items cannot be cleaned or disinfected. They must be thrown away after one use to prevent cross-contamination.
21. What should you do first if disinfectant solution is spilled on your skin?
A. Call 911
B. Wipe it off with a towel
C. Rinse immediately with water
D. Cover with gloves
Correct Answer: C. Rinse immediately with water
Explanation: Chemical safety protocol requires immediate rinsing of the affected skin area with water to minimize irritation or chemical burns.
22. What is the purpose of Safety Data Sheets (SDS)?
A. To market products
B. To describe proper chemical handling and emergency procedures
C. To offer product discounts
D. To explain customer satisfaction policies
Correct Answer: B. To describe proper chemical handling and emergency procedures
Explanation: SDS (formerly MSDS) are required by OSHA and contain critical information about hazards, safe usage, and emergency steps for each product.
23. What is a microorganism that can cause disease called?
A. Probiotic
B. Pathogen
C. Allergen
D. Protein
Correct Answer: B. Pathogen
Explanation: A pathogen is any microorganism—like bacteria, viruses, or fungi—that can cause disease.
24. What does PPE stand for in esthetics and cosmetology?
A. Personal Protection Equipment
B. Professional Practice Evaluation
C. Permanent Personal Esthetics
D. Personal Processing Enzymes
Correct Answer: A. Personal Protection Equipment
Explanation: PPE refers to protective items such as gloves, face shields, and masks that help protect both the practitioner and the client from infection and exposure.
25. Which of the following is the best way to prevent cross-contamination between clients?
A. Using gloves for each service
B. Changing towels once a week
C. Wearing a mask
D. Avoiding talking during services
Correct Answer: A. Using gloves for each service
Explanation: Cross-contamination is minimized by using new gloves and properly disinfecting tools and surfaces between each client.
26. How long should you wash your hands to effectively reduce pathogens?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 1 minute
Correct Answer: C. 20 seconds
Explanation: The CDC recommends washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds to effectively remove germs and contaminants.
27. A disinfectant should be registered with which agency?
A. FDA
B. USDA
C. EPA
D. WHO
Correct Answer: C. EPA
Explanation: The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) approves disinfectants and ensures their effectiveness against specific pathogens.
28. What is the most effective method for cleaning implements before disinfection?
A. Dry brushing
B. Wiping with a towel
C. Rinsing with water only
D. Scrubbing with soap and water
Correct Answer: D. Scrubbing with soap and water
Explanation: Disinfection is only effective after the implement is thoroughly cleaned of all visible debris with soap and water.
29. Which statement is true about universal precautions?
A. They apply only to clients with known diseases
B. They are optional in a salon
C. They assume all human blood and fluids are infectious
D. They apply only in hospitals
Correct Answer: C. They assume all human blood and fluids are infectious
Explanation: Universal precautions are infection control measures that treat all bodily fluids as if they are infected, reducing transmission risk.
30. What is a major responsibility of salon owners regarding infection control?
A. Marketing services
B. Reviewing client hairstyles
C. Providing PPE and proper disinfectants
D. Cutting all clients’ hair
Correct Answer: C. Providing PPE and proper disinfectants
Explanation: Owners are responsible for ensuring the salon complies with health regulations by providing necessary PPE, disinfectants, and sanitation protocols.
31. Which level of decontamination is required by law for all nonporous salon tools?
A. Sanitation
B. Rinsing
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
Correct Answer: C. Disinfection
Explanation: Nonporous tools must be disinfected with an EPA-registered disinfectant to kill most bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Sterilization is higher-level and used for surgical tools.
32. When mixing disinfectants, what should be added to what?
A. Water to disinfectant
B. Disinfectant to water
C. Alcohol to bleach
D. Bleach to alcohol
Correct Answer: B. Disinfectant to water
Explanation: Always add disinfectant to water to reduce splashing and ensure accurate dilution. This also minimizes chemical burns or reactions.
33. Which of the following is NOT considered a standard precaution?
A. Wearing gloves
B. Handwashing
C. Double-dipping wax applicators
D. Using disinfectants
Correct Answer: C. Double-dipping wax applicators
Explanation: Double-dipping is unsanitary and spreads bacteria between clients. It violates standard precautions meant to prevent cross-contamination.
34. What is the first step in preventing the spread of infection in a salon?
A. Sterilizing all tools
B. Cleaning hands properly
C. Using disposable razors
D. Wearing gowns
Correct Answer: B. Cleaning hands properly
Explanation: Hand hygiene is the most basic and important step in preventing the transmission of pathogens.
35. Which agency regulates and enforces safety and health standards in the workplace?
A. EPA
B. FDA
C. CDC
D. OSHA
Correct Answer: D. OSHA
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration sets and enforces workplace health and safety standards, including infection control protocols.
36. What type of disinfectant is best for use in a salon?
A. Household bleach
B. Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectant
C. Vinegar and baking soda
D. Essential oils
Correct Answer: B. Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectant
Explanation: These disinfectants meet the legal and health standards for eliminating most pathogens in professional settings.
37. Which term means the complete destruction of all microbial life, including spores?
A. Sanitation
B. Sterilization
C. Disinfection
D. Decontamination
Correct Answer: B. Sterilization
Explanation: Sterilization is the highest level of decontamination, used for surgical and invasive procedures—not typically required in salons.
38. How should single-use items be handled after a service?
A. Clean and reuse
B. Store for later use
C. Disinfect
D. Discard immediately
Correct Answer: D. Discard immediately
Explanation: Single-use (disposable) items like wooden sticks, gloves, or cotton swabs must be thrown away after one use to prevent contamination.
39. When should gloves be changed during a service?
A. At the end of the day
B. Between clients or if torn
C. Only if visibly dirty
D. Once per hour
Correct Answer: B. Between clients or if torn
Explanation: Gloves must be changed between services and immediately if compromised to protect both practitioner and client.
40. What must be available in a salon for each chemical used?
A. Product review
B. Coupon code
C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
D. Expiration sticker
Correct Answer: C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
Explanation: OSHA requires an SDS for every chemical product used in the salon, which outlines handling, storage, and emergency procedures.
41. What is the best way to store disinfected tools?
A. In a sealed plastic bag
B. In your apron pocket
C. In a clean, closed, dry container
D. On an open countertop
Correct Answer: C. In a clean, closed, dry container
Explanation: After disinfection, tools should be stored in a closed container to prevent contamination before their next use.
42. What is the purpose of pre-cleaning before disinfection?
A. To improve product scent
B. To reduce drying time
C. To remove visible debris and increase disinfectant effectiveness
D. To make tools shiny
Correct Answer: C. To remove visible debris and increase disinfectant effectiveness
Explanation: Disinfectants are only effective when applied to clean surfaces. Debris and oil can block disinfectant action.
43. How long should tools be fully immersed in disinfectant (if not otherwise stated by the label)?
A. 30 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. Overnight
Correct Answer: C. 10 minutes
Explanation: Most EPA-registered disinfectants require a 10-minute contact time to properly kill pathogens unless the product label states otherwise.
44. What is the risk of using expired disinfectant?
A. It could stain tools
B. It may smell bad
C. It may be ineffective at killing bacteria and viruses
D. It could cause allergic reactions
Correct Answer: C. It may be ineffective at killing bacteria and viruses
Explanation: Disinfectants lose potency over time, making them unreliable in protecting clients and staff from infection.
45. When should linens be changed during the day?
A. After every client
B. Once a day
C. At the end of the week
D. When visibly dirty
Correct Answer: A. After every client
Explanation: Linens must be replaced between clients to maintain hygiene standards and prevent cross-contamination.
46. What is the most appropriate action if a client bleeds during a service?
A. Continue the service as usual
B. Stop the service and wash your hands
C. Stop the service, use gloves, and follow blood exposure procedures
D. Ask the client to leave
Correct Answer: C. Stop the service, use gloves, and follow blood exposure procedures
Explanation: Bloodborne pathogens protocols must be followed immediately to protect both the client and practitioner.
47. Which of the following can be used to disinfect a metal tool?
A. Isopropyl alcohol 70%
B. Warm water and vinegar
C. Lotion
D. Bar soap
Correct Answer: A. Isopropyl alcohol 70%
Explanation: Alcohol at 70% concentration is effective for disinfecting clean, nonporous metal tools when soaked or wiped for proper contact time.
48. What is the main concern when handling and disposing of chemical waste in a salon?
A. Attracting insects
B. Losing product
C. Violating environmental and safety regulations
D. Making a mess
Correct Answer: C. Violating environmental and safety regulations
Explanation: Improper disposal can harm the environment and lead to fines. Follow local regulations and SDS guidelines.
49. What is the best way to prevent fungal infections in salon environments?
A. Applying perfumes
B. Keeping floors carpeted
C. Maintaining dry and clean conditions
D. Using fans to circulate air
Correct Answer: C. Maintaining dry and clean conditions
Explanation: Fungi thrive in moist, unclean environments. Regular cleaning and proper ventilation prevent fungal growth.
50. What regulation requires salons to keep a clean and sanitary environment?
A. State Board of Cosmetology
B. Better Business Bureau
C. Department of Revenue
D. EPA
Correct Answer: A. State Board of Cosmetology
Explanation: State cosmetology boards set health and safety standards that salons must meet to maintain licensure and avoid penalties.
51. Why must contaminated tools be cleaned before disinfection?
A. To reduce shine
B. To remove bacteria
C. To remove visible debris and allow disinfectant to work properly
D. To make them lighter
Correct Answer: C. To remove visible debris and allow disinfectant to work properly
Explanation: Disinfectants cannot effectively penetrate dirt or organic matter. Tools must be visibly clean before disinfection.
52. Which of the following is considered a single-use (disposable) item?
A. Metal tweezers
B. Nail clippers
C. Wooden stick
D. Scissors
Correct Answer: C. Wooden stick
Explanation: Wooden sticks are porous and cannot be disinfected. They must be discarded after one use.
53. What is the best way to prevent spreading infection between clients?
A. Change your clothes
B. Wear perfume
C. Sanitize or disinfect all tools and surfaces between clients
D. Use fans
Correct Answer: C. Sanitize or disinfect all tools and surfaces between clients
Explanation: Proper sanitation and disinfection are the most reliable ways to prevent disease transmission in a salon.
54. Which document provides detailed safety and handling instructions for chemical products?
A. Business license
B. OSHA certificate
C. SDS (Safety Data Sheet)
D. Warranty sheet
Correct Answer: C. SDS (Safety Data Sheet)
Explanation: SDS outlines chemical hazards, handling, storage, and emergency procedures, as required by OSHA.
55. Which agency requires employers to provide PPE to employees at no cost?
A. FDA
B. EPA
C. OSHA
D. IRS
Correct Answer: C. OSHA
Explanation: OSHA mandates that employers provide personal protective equipment (PPE) to safeguard worker health.
56. What is the purpose of using a disinfectant labeled “hospital grade”?
A. It smells better
B. It kills more germs, including bloodborne pathogens
C. It’s cheaper
D. It’s easier to mix
Correct Answer: B. It kills more germs, including bloodborne pathogens
Explanation: “Hospital-grade” disinfectants are more effective and meet stricter requirements for controlling harmful microorganisms.
57. If a tool touches a client’s skin and is then dropped, what must happen?
A. Pick it up and use again immediately
B. Rinse with water and dry
C. Clean and disinfect before reuse
D. Throw it away
Correct Answer: C. Clean and disinfect before reuse
Explanation: Tools contaminated by touching skin or the floor must be cleaned and properly disinfected before further use.
58. What kind of soap should be used to wash hands in a professional setting?
A. Bar soap
B. Detergent
C. Liquid antibacterial or antimicrobial soap
D. Powder soap
Correct Answer: C. Liquid antibacterial or antimicrobial soap
Explanation: Liquid soaps reduce contamination and eliminate cross-contamination compared to bar soap.
59. What does the acronym SDS stand for?
A. Salon Disinfection Standards
B. Safety Device Sheet
C. Safety Data Sheet
D. Sanitation and Disease Summary
Correct Answer: C. Safety Data Sheet
Explanation: SDS stands for Safety Data Sheet, which is required for every chemical product used in the workplace.
60. What is cross-contamination?
A. Mixing two disinfectants
B. Touching a client’s face with a dirty towel
C. Using too much shampoo
D. Sharing business cards
Correct Answer: B. Touching a client’s face with a dirty towel
Explanation: Cross-contamination is the transfer of harmful bacteria or substances from one surface or person to another, often due to poor sanitation.
Chapter 2: Anatomy & Physiology for Cosmetologists
Core Concepts Covered:
- Cells, tissues, and body systems
- The skeletal, muscular, nervous, and circulatory systems
- Functions and relevance to cosmetology services
- Impacts of body structure on hair, skin, and nail care
Practice Questions + Answers + Explanations
1. What is the basic unit of all living things?
A) Tissue
B) Organ
C) Cell
D) System
Correct Answer: C) Cell
Explanation: The cell is the fundamental unit of life in all living organisms. All tissues and systems in the human body are composed of cells.
2. Which type of tissue supports, protects, and binds together other tissues of the body?
A) Muscular
B) Epithelial
C) Connective
D) Nerve
Correct Answer: C) Connective
Explanation: Connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, ligaments, and tendons, and its function is to support and bind tissues together.
3. What body system is responsible for carrying messages to and from the brain?
A) Endocrine
B) Circulatory
C) Nervous
D) Muscular
Correct Answer: C) Nervous
Explanation: The nervous system is made up of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. It transmits electrical impulses to coordinate bodily functions.
4. The largest organ of the human body is the:
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Skin
Correct Answer: D) Skin
Explanation: The skin is the body’s largest organ, covering the entire external surface and protecting internal organs.
5. What type of muscle is found in the arms and legs, and is controlled voluntarily?
A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Involuntary
Correct Answer: B) Skeletal
Explanation: Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and controlled voluntarily, enabling body movement—important in massage and hair services.
6. Which part of the brain controls voluntary movement and balance?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: B) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum controls muscle coordination and balance, essential for movement precision.
7. Which system distributes blood throughout the body?
A) Lymphatic
B) Circulatory
C) Endocrine
D) Digestive
Correct Answer: B) Circulatory
Explanation: The circulatory system, including the heart and blood vessels, delivers oxygen and nutrients and removes waste.
8. The heart is divided into how many chambers?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Correct Answer: C) 4
Explanation: The heart has four chambers—right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle.
9. What is the name of the artery that supplies blood to the head, face, and neck?
A) Carotid artery
B) Radial artery
C) Femoral artery
D) Aorta
Correct Answer: A) Carotid artery
Explanation: The carotid arteries are major blood vessels that provide oxygen-rich blood to the brain and facial tissues.
10. What are neurons?
A) Bone cells
B) Muscle fibers
C) Nerve cells
D) Skin cells
Correct Answer: C) Nerve cells
Explanation: Neurons are the basic units of the nervous system, responsible for transmitting electrical signals throughout the body.
11. What type of muscle is found only in the heart?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Voluntary muscle
Correct Answer: C) Cardiac muscle
Explanation: Cardiac muscle is a special involuntary muscle found only in the heart. It contracts automatically to pump blood without conscious effort.
12. What part of the brain controls thought, memory, and emotion?
A) Brainstem
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Medulla
Correct Answer: C) Cerebrum
Explanation: The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for voluntary actions, logic, emotions, memory, and thinking—functions important in client interactions and decision-making in cosmetology.
13. Which system helps regulate hormones in the body?
A) Nervous system
B) Respiratory system
C) Endocrine system
D) Lymphatic system
Correct Answer: C) Endocrine system
Explanation: The endocrine system is made up of glands that release hormones, which regulate many body processes like growth, mood, and metabolism.
14. What is the name of the tough connective tissue that connects muscles to bones?
A) Ligaments
B) Cartilage
C) Tendons
D) Fascia
Correct Answer: C) Tendons
Explanation: Tendons connect muscles to bones, helping with movement. Cosmetologists use and stretch these areas during services like massages.
15. What are the three types of muscle tissue?
A) Cardiac, Smooth, Skeletal
B) Involuntary, Voluntary, Semi-voluntary
C) Red, White, Spongy
D) Soft, Hard, Dense
Correct Answer: A) Cardiac, Smooth, Skeletal
Explanation: These three types of muscle tissue serve different purposes: skeletal (voluntary movement), smooth (internal organs), and cardiac (heart).
16. Which part of the cell controls most of its activities?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleus
C) Cell membrane
D) Mitochondria
Correct Answer: B) Nucleus
Explanation: The nucleus functions as the cell’s control center, regulating growth, metabolism, and reproduction—just as a good professional regulates their tools and practices.
17. What system removes waste products from the body?
A) Digestive system
B) Respiratory system
C) Excretory system
D) Skeletal system
Correct Answer: C) Excretory system
Explanation: The excretory system eliminates waste through organs like the kidneys and skin (via sweat)—important in skin health and detox routines in esthetics.
18. What is the largest bone in the human face?
A) Mandible
B) Maxilla
C) Nasal bone
D) Zygomatic bone
Correct Answer: A) Mandible
Explanation: The mandible, or lower jawbone, is the largest and strongest facial bone and critical for face shape and services like shaving or facial massage.
19. Which body system includes hair, nails, and skin?
A) Skeletal system
B) Integumentary system
C) Nervous system
D) Respiratory system
Correct Answer: B) Integumentary system
Explanation: The integumentary system includes skin, hair, and nails. Understanding this system is vital for any cosmetologist, especially for skin care, waxing, and hair services.
20. What is the function of red blood cells?
A) Fight infection
B) Regulate hormones
C) Carry oxygen
D) Clot the blood
Correct Answer: C) Carry oxygen
Explanation: Red blood cells transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Healthy circulation promotes healthy skin, which is crucial for beauty professionals to recognize.
21. What type of joint is found in the shoulder and hip, allowing for a wide range of motion?
A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Saddle joint
D) Ball-and-socket joint
Correct Answer: D) Ball-and-socket joint
Explanation: Ball-and-socket joints, such as those in the shoulder and hip, allow for the greatest range of motion in multiple directions—important for understanding ergonomics and body positioning in cosmetology.
22. Which muscle is primarily responsible for closing the jaw?
A) Temporalis
B) Zygomaticus
C) Masseter
D) Sternocleidomastoid
Correct Answer: C) Masseter
Explanation: The masseter is one of the strongest muscles in the body, responsible for jaw movement—relevant in facial massage and TMJ awareness during esthetic services.
23. What part of the nervous system controls voluntary muscle movements?
A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Central nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Peripheral nervous system
Correct Answer: B) Central nervous system
Explanation: The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) controls voluntary actions. Cosmetologists rely on precise muscle control during services.
24. What is the name of the lower leg bone that bears most of the body’s weight?
A) Fibula
B) Femur
C) Tibia
D) Patella
Correct Answer: C) Tibia
Explanation: The tibia, or shinbone, is the larger and weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. Important when understanding body support during long hours of standing.
25. What is the name of the muscular wall that separates the chest from the abdominal cavity?
A) Diaphragm
B) Sternum
C) Deltoid
D) Rectus abdominis
Correct Answer: A) Diaphragm
Explanation: The diaphragm is a major muscle involved in respiration. Proper breathing is vital for maintaining energy and calmness during long appointments.
26. What is the name of the protective outer layer of the skin?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Subcutaneous
D) Stratum basale
Correct Answer: B) Epidermis
Explanation: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin that serves as a barrier. Understanding this is essential for performing facials and waxing safely.
27. Which part of the cell produces energy?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B) Mitochondria
Explanation: Known as the “powerhouse of the cell,” mitochondria provide energy for all cell activities—just like professionals need fuel to deliver high-quality services.
28. Which system is responsible for producing offspring?
A) Endocrine system
B) Digestive system
C) Reproductive system
D) Lymphatic system
Correct Answer: C) Reproductive system
Explanation: The reproductive system produces gametes and hormones related to fertility and development. While not directly relevant in most services, understanding hormonal effects on skin is helpful.
29. The system that supplies oxygen to the body is the:
A) Digestive system
B) Respiratory system
C) Endocrine system
D) Nervous system
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory system
Explanation: The respiratory system brings oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide. Oxygen is crucial for skin health and cellular function—especially in treatments like oxygen facials.
30. What structure is responsible for filtering lymph and fighting infections?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Lymph nodes
D) Pancreas
Correct Answer: C) Lymph nodes
Explanation: Lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system and help the body fight infection. Swollen lymph nodes can affect client comfort during services like massage or facial treatments.
31. Which system includes glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream?
A) Digestive system
B) Respiratory system
C) Endocrine system
D) Lymphatic system
Correct Answer: C) Endocrine system
Explanation: The endocrine system regulates long-term body processes through hormones. Cosmetologists must understand it, especially how hormones affect skin, hair, and nails.
32. Which part of the brain controls voluntary muscle movement and balance?
A) Brainstem
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cerebellum
D) Thalamus
Correct Answer: C) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum manages coordination and movement—key knowledge for ergonomics and preventing injury in hands-on professions like cosmetology.
33. The system responsible for breaking down food and absorbing nutrients is the:
A) Endocrine system
B) Nervous system
C) Respiratory system
D) Digestive system
Correct Answer: D) Digestive system
Explanation: Nutrition plays a direct role in the health of skin, hair, and nails—understanding digestion helps connect diet to appearance and service outcomes.
34. The largest organ of the human body is the:
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Skin
D) Heart
Correct Answer: C) Skin
Explanation: The skin is the body’s largest organ and the cosmetologist’s main focus. This foundational fact supports every skincare, waxing, and makeup application.
35. What part of the circulatory system carries oxygen-rich blood away from the heart?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Lymph vessels
Correct Answer: A) Arteries
Explanation: Arteries deliver oxygenated blood to the body. Cosmetologists should avoid working over certain arteries during massage or waxing.
36. What is the basic unit of life in all living organisms?
A) Tissue
B) Cell
C) Organ
D) Nucleus
Correct Answer: B) Cell
Explanation: Cells are the building blocks of all tissues and organs. This fact is foundational for understanding how treatments affect different layers of the skin and hair.
37. What system controls the body’s response to stress through “fight or flight”?
A) Lymphatic system
B) Endocrine system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Skeletal system
Correct Answer: C) Autonomic nervous system
Explanation: The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions including stress responses, which can manifest in the skin and affect client comfort.
38. Which structure connects muscles to bones?
A) Ligaments
B) Cartilage
C) Tendons
D) Fascia
Correct Answer: C) Tendons
Explanation: Tendons connect muscle to bone, playing a major role in movement. Proper posture and muscle use help prevent cosmetologist injury.
39. What is the name of the colorless, watery fluid derived from blood plasma that circulates through the lymph vessels?
A) Interstitial fluid
B) Synovial fluid
C) Lymph
D) Plasma
Correct Answer: C) Lymph
Explanation: Lymph fluid supports immune function and skin health. Swelling or poor drainage may affect how facial and massage services are delivered.
40. Which part of the skin contains collagen and elastin fibers?
A) Epidermis
B) Subcutaneous layer
C) Dermis
D) Stratum corneum
Correct Answer: C) Dermis
Explanation: The dermis houses collagen and elastin, giving skin strength and elasticity. Cosmetologists target this layer in treatments like facials and anti-aging care.
41. Which system helps protect the body from disease by producing white blood cells?
A) Skeletal system
B) Circulatory system
C) Lymphatic system
D) Respiratory system
Correct Answer: C) Lymphatic system
Explanation: The lymphatic system is critical to immune defense, transporting lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells—key to skin and body health.
42. What is the name of the flat, broad muscle that extends from the chest and shoulder muscles to the side of the chin?
A) Platysma
B) Masseter
C) Frontalis
D) Trapezius
Correct Answer: A) Platysma
Explanation: The platysma pulls the lower lip down and wrinkles the neck. Knowing facial muscles helps cosmetologists provide effective facials and massages.
43. Which bone forms the lower jaw and is the largest and strongest bone of the face?
A) Maxilla
B) Zygomatic
C) Mandible
D) Nasal
Correct Answer: C) Mandible
Explanation: The mandible supports lower facial structure and movement—important for understanding face shapes and applying techniques like contouring or waxing.
44. What system is responsible for transporting oxygen and nutrients throughout the body?
A) Muscular system
B) Endocrine system
C) Circulatory system
D) Nervous system
Correct Answer: C) Circulatory system
Explanation: The circulatory system keeps tissues nourished and oxygenated. Treatments affecting circulation (like massage) are more effective with this knowledge.
45. What tissue type contracts to produce movement in the body?
A) Nervous
B) Connective
C) Muscular
D) Epithelial
Correct Answer: C) Muscular
Explanation: Muscular tissue is responsible for movement—both voluntary and involuntary. This knowledge supports injury prevention and massage effectiveness.
46. Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary actions and movement of skeletal muscles?
A) Central nervous system
B) Autonomic nervous system
C) Somatic nervous system
D) Peripheral nervous system
Correct Answer: C) Somatic nervous system
Explanation: The somatic nervous system directs voluntary actions, like hand movement. Cosmetologists rely on this system to perform services with precision.
47. The part of the heart that pumps oxygenated blood to the body is the:
A) Left atrium
B) Right atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
Correct Answer: D) Left ventricle
Explanation: The left ventricle’s strong contraction sends oxygen-rich blood to the body. A healthy heart supports glowing skin and overall wellness.
48. What is the function of sebaceous glands?
A) Produce sweat
B) Filter blood
C) Produce sebum
D) Regulate temperature
Correct Answer: C) Produce sebum
Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete sebum (oil), which lubricates skin and hair. Overactivity or blockage can cause acne—common client concerns in esthetics.
49. What is the function of melanin in the skin?
A) Hydration
B) Blood flow
C) Protection from UV radiation
D) Immune defense
Correct Answer: C) Protection from UV radiation
Explanation: Melanin provides pigment and shields deeper skin layers from sun damage. Understanding melanin is essential for customizing treatments based on skin tone.
50. Which layer of skin contains no blood vessels and is nourished by diffusion from the dermis?
A) Dermis
B) Subcutaneous
C) Epidermis
D) Stratum lucidum
Correct Answer: C) Epidermis
Explanation: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. It is avascular and depends on the dermis for nutrients—critical knowledge for superficial treatments.
51. Which organ is primarily responsible for detoxifying the blood?
A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs
Correct Answer: C) Liver
Explanation: The liver breaks down toxins and helps maintain healthy skin by processing substances that might otherwise lead to inflammation or dullness.
52. What part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A) Cerebrum
B) Brainstem
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: C) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum ensures smooth body movement and posture. For cosmetologists, it’s useful to understand how body balance and muscle control work.
53. The endocrine system releases what into the bloodstream?
A) Antibodies
B) Hormones
C) Neurotransmitters
D) Enzymes
Correct Answer: B) Hormones
Explanation: Hormones regulate many bodily processes including hair growth, acne, and aging. Hormonal imbalance often affects the skin—an important esthetics concern.
54. Which bones form the cheekbones?
A) Nasal bones
B) Mandible bones
C) Zygomatic bones
D) Maxilla bones
Correct Answer: C) Zygomatic bones
Explanation: The zygomatic bones define facial structure and contour—relevant in makeup application and advanced skin care consultations.
55. Which part of the respiratory system is commonly called the windpipe?
A) Larynx
B) Bronchi
C) Trachea
D) Esophagus
Correct Answer: C) Trachea
Explanation: The trachea delivers air to the lungs. Proper oxygenation is essential for healthy skin and tissue repair—factors cosmetologists must consider post-treatment.
56. What is the smallest unit of life in the human body?
A) Organelle
B) Cell
C) Atom
D) Tissue
Correct Answer: B) Cell
Explanation: Cells are the foundation of all body structures and functions. Healthy cells are the goal of many esthetic treatments like exfoliation and rejuvenation.
57. Which muscle is used when smiling?
A) Frontalis
B) Orbicularis oris
C) Zygomaticus major
D) Buccinator
Correct Answer: C) Zygomaticus major
Explanation: The zygomaticus major elevates the corners of the mouth—understanding this enhances facial massage and sculpting treatments.
58. The large, dome-shaped muscle that aids in breathing is called:
A) Deltoid
B) Pectoralis
C) Diaphragm
D) Trapezius
Correct Answer: C) Diaphragm
Explanation: The diaphragm helps with respiration. Deep breathing enhances oxygen delivery, calming the client and supporting cellular repair.
59. Which system removes waste from the body?
A) Endocrine system
B) Excretory system
C) Integumentary system
D) Muscular system
Correct Answer: B) Excretory system
Explanation: The excretory system, which includes the kidneys, liver, and skin, helps maintain internal balance—key to clear, glowing skin.
60. What is the name of the long bone in the upper arm?
A) Radius
B) Ulna
C) Humerus
D) Femur
Correct Answer: C) Humerus
Explanation: The humerus is important in arm movement. Cosmetologists often work with clients’ arms and hands, so anatomical understanding supports safe practices.
Chapter 3: Skin Structure, Disorders & Diseases
Core Topics:
- Layers of the skin (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue)
- Functions of the skin
- Common skin disorders and diseases
- Infections and inflammations
- Recognizing contraindications for services
- Warning signs of skin cancer
This chapter includes 60 PSI-style questions designed to prepare you for the Cosmetology Licensing Theory Exam, with detailed explanations to ensure comprehension.
Question 1:
What is the outermost layer of the skin called?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Subcutaneous tissue
D. Stratum reticulum
Correct Answer: B. Epidermis
Explanation: The epidermis is the thin, outermost layer of the skin. It acts as a barrier to protect the body from pathogens, UV rays, and water loss.
Question 2:
Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerve endings, and sweat glands?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Epidermis
C. Dermis
D. Basal layer
Correct Answer: C. Dermis
Explanation: The dermis is the second layer of the skin beneath the epidermis. It houses the skin’s nerve endings, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels.
Question 3:
What is the function of the subcutaneous layer?
A. Protection from UV rays
B. Production of melanin
C. Temperature regulation and fat storage
D. Cell turnover and renewal
Correct Answer: C. Temperature regulation and fat storage
Explanation: The subcutaneous tissue (also called the hypodermis) insulates the body, stores energy in the form of fat, and cushions underlying structures.
Question 4:
What is the technical term for the oil that lubricates the skin and hair?
A. Sweat
B. Plasma
C. Sebum
D. Lymph
Correct Answer: C. Sebum
Explanation: Sebum is produced by sebaceous glands and helps keep the skin moisturized and protected.
Question 5:
Which skin disorder is characterized by red, flaky patches commonly on the scalp, elbows, and knees?
A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis
C. Impetigo
D. Tinea
Correct Answer: B. Psoriasis
Explanation: Psoriasis is a chronic, non-contagious skin condition that results in red, scaly patches due to the rapid production of skin cells.
Question 6:
Which of the following is a contagious bacterial skin infection?
A. Psoriasis
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Impetigo
D. Rosacea
Correct Answer: C. Impetigo
Explanation: Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial skin infection that appears as red sores and is most common in children.
Question 7:
Which term refers to a skin sore or abrasion caused by scratching or scraping?
A. Crust
B. Excoriation
C. Macule
D. Papule
Correct Answer: B. Excoriation
Explanation: An excoriation is a skin lesion produced by scratching or scraping, often seen in acne or other skin irritations.
Question 8:
A small, discolored spot or patch on the skin, like a freckle, is called a:
A. Nodule
B. Papule
C. Macule
D. Pustule
Correct Answer: C. Macule
Explanation: A macule is a flat, distinct, discolored area of skin that does not involve any change in the thickness or texture, like freckles or flat moles.
Question 9:
Which of the following is considered a primary lesion?
A. Keloid
B. Fissure
C. Papule
D. Scar
Correct Answer: C. Papule
Explanation: A papule is a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling that is often part of a rash. It’s classified as a primary skin lesion.
Question 10:
What is the ABCD rule for recognizing potential skin cancer?
A. Acknowledge, Balance, Color, Diameter
B. Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter
C. Area, Border, Clarity, Dullness
D. Asymmetry, Breakout, Consistency, Depth
Correct Answer: B. Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter
Explanation: The ABCD rule helps identify possible skin cancers like melanoma. A = Asymmetry, B = Border irregularity, C = Color variation, D = Diameter over 6mm.
Question 11:
What is the skin’s primary function related to environmental protection?
A. Regulating oxygen exchange
B. Secreting digestive enzymes
C. Acting as a barrier against pathogens
D. Producing collagen
Correct Answer: C. Acting as a barrier against pathogens
Explanation: The skin acts as a physical and chemical barrier against harmful microorganisms, UV radiation, and environmental toxins.
Question 12:
What is the name of the pigment that gives skin its color?
A. Carotene
B. Hemoglobin
C. Collagen
D. Melanin
Correct Answer: D. Melanin
Explanation: Melanin is the pigment produced by melanocytes that determines skin color and offers protection from ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Question 13:
Which skin layer contains melanocytes?
A. Stratum lucidum
B. Stratum basale
C. Stratum corneum
D. Dermis
Correct Answer: B. Stratum basale
Explanation: Melanocytes are located in the stratum basale (also known as the basal layer), the deepest layer of the epidermis.
Question 14:
Which of the following is a sign of healthy skin?
A. Greasy, congested texture
B. Thin and fragile appearance
C. Smooth with good elasticity
D. Dull and flaky complexion
Correct Answer: C. Smooth with good elasticity
Explanation: Healthy skin is smooth, firm, well-hydrated, and exhibits resilience and elasticity.
Question 15:
What is a comedone?
A. A blister filled with clear fluid
B. A cystic growth in the dermis
C. A clogged hair follicle
D. An inflamed papule
Correct Answer: C. A clogged hair follicle
Explanation: A comedone (blackhead or whitehead) is a clogged pore or hair follicle filled with excess sebum and dead skin cells.
Question 16:
Which skin condition is characterized by inflamed pustules and comedones, often triggered by hormones?
A. Tinea corporis
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Keratosis pilaris
Correct Answer: B. Acne vulgaris
Explanation: Acne vulgaris is a common inflammatory skin condition affecting sebaceous glands, typically due to hormonal fluctuations and clogged pores.
Question 17:
Which of the following is not a contraindication for a facial treatment?
A. Open wounds
B. Active herpes simplex
C. Recent chemical peel
D. Normal dry skin
Correct Answer: D. Normal dry skin
Explanation: Dry skin is not a contraindication and may benefit from moisturizing treatments. The other options could risk spreading infection or irritation.
Question 18:
Which microorganism can cause skin infections and is commonly present on the skin surface?
A. Protozoa
B. Staphylococcus
C. Influenza virus
D. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: B. Staphylococcus
Explanation: Staphylococcus bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus, are commonly found on the skin and can cause infections if the skin barrier is compromised.
Question 19:
What is the function of sebaceous glands?
A. Produce sweat
B. Produce melanin
C. Produce sebum
D. Filter lymph fluid
Correct Answer: C. Produce sebum
Explanation: Sebaceous glands are responsible for producing sebum, the natural oil that helps protect and moisturize the skin.
Question 20:
Which of the following is a fungal infection of the skin?
A. Tinea
B. Psoriasis
C. Eczema
D. Rosacea
Correct Answer: A. Tinea
Explanation: Tinea is a fungal infection that affects the skin, hair, or nails and is commonly known as ringworm.
Question 21:
Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerves?
A. Epidermis
B. Stratum corneum
C. Dermis
D. Stratum lucidum
Correct Answer: C. Dermis
Explanation: The dermis, located beneath the epidermis, houses blood vessels, nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands. The epidermis is avascular (lacks blood supply).
Question 22:
What condition is characterized by red, itchy patches commonly found on elbows, knees, and scalp?
A. Psoriasis
B. Rosacea
C. Impetigo
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: A. Psoriasis
Explanation: Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that speeds up skin cell turnover, leading to scaly, inflamed plaques on the skin.
Question 23:
What term describes excessive hair growth in women in a male-pattern distribution?
A. Alopecia
B. Hyperhidrosis
C. Hirsutism
D. Anhidrosis
Correct Answer: C. Hirsutism
Explanation: Hirsutism is the medical term for unwanted, male-pattern hair growth in women, often due to hormonal imbalances.
Question 24:
What causes rosacea flare-ups?
A. Fungal infection
B. Poor hygiene
C. Triggers such as heat, spicy foods, and alcohol
D. Excessive sebum
Correct Answer: C. Triggers such as heat, spicy foods, and alcohol
Explanation: Rosacea is a chronic condition with flare-ups caused by various triggers, including temperature extremes, spicy foods, and stress.
Question 25:
Which gland is responsible for thermoregulation through sweat?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Endocrine gland
C. Apocrine gland
D. Eccrine gland
Correct Answer: D. Eccrine gland
Explanation: Eccrine glands are distributed all over the body and help regulate temperature by releasing sweat directly onto the skin surface.
Question 26:
What is the largest organ of the body?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Skin
Correct Answer: D. Skin
Explanation: The skin is the body’s largest organ by surface area and weight, functioning as a protective barrier and regulating temperature.
Question 27:
What type of lesion is a freckle considered?
A. Primary lesion
B. Secondary lesion
C. Vascular lesion
D. Fungal lesion
Correct Answer: A. Primary lesion
Explanation: A freckle is a flat, discolored macule—a type of primary skin lesion with no elevation or texture.
Question 28:
Which disorder is associated with overactive sebaceous glands?
A. Anhidrosis
B. Seborrhea
C. Eczema
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: B. Seborrhea
Explanation: Seborrhea is a condition involving excessive oil production, often causing oily skin and scalp.
Question 29:
Which of the following is a contagious bacterial skin infection common in children?
A. Psoriasis
B. Impetigo
C. Rosacea
D. Keratosis
Correct Answer: B. Impetigo
Explanation: Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection caused by staph or strep bacteria, often presenting with honey-colored crusts.
Question 30:
Which vitamin is synthesized by the skin in the presence of sunlight?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
Correct Answer: C. Vitamin D
Explanation: The skin helps synthesize Vitamin D when exposed to UVB radiation from sunlight, which is essential for calcium absorption and bone health.
Question 31:
Which of the following is a secondary lesion that results from the loss of skin surface?
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Excoriation
D. Nodule
Correct Answer: C. Excoriation
Explanation: An excoriation is a secondary lesion caused by scratching or abrasion, resulting in the loss of the epidermis and sometimes part of the dermis.
Question 32:
What term describes the skin’s natural protective barrier of oil and moisture?
A. Lipid layer
B. Hydrolipid film
C. Sebaceous matrix
D. Dermal shield
Correct Answer: B. Hydrolipid film
Explanation: The hydrolipid film is a thin, protective barrier made of sebum, sweat, and water that helps maintain skin hydration and block pathogens.
Question 33:
What condition is characterized by extremely dry, scaly skin?
A. Xerosis
B. Rosacea
C. Vitiligo
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: A. Xerosis
Explanation: Xerosis is the medical term for abnormally dry skin, often worsened by cold weather, aging, or harsh skin care products.
Question 34:
Which part of the skin contains collagen and elastin?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Subcutaneous layer
Correct Answer: B. Dermis
Explanation: Collagen and elastin, responsible for the skin’s strength and elasticity, are found in the dermis—the middle layer of the skin.
Question 35:
Which disorder is characterized by the absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes?
A. Melasma
B. Albinism
C. Vitiligo
D. Hyperpigmentation
Correct Answer: B. Albinism
Explanation: Albinism is a genetic condition where the body fails to produce melanin, resulting in little or no pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes.
Question 36:
What causes the condition known as vitiligo?
A. Overproduction of melanin
B. Bacterial infection
C. Loss of melanocytes
D. Fungal overgrowth
Correct Answer: C. Loss of melanocytes
Explanation: Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition where the body attacks and destroys melanocytes, causing patchy loss of skin color.
Question 37:
Which term refers to a raised, inflamed lesion containing pus?
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Pustule
D. Wheal
Correct Answer: C. Pustule
Explanation: A pustule is a small, inflamed lesion filled with pus and is often seen in conditions like acne.
Question 38:
What is the function of the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
A. Pigment production
B. Sensory input
C. Fat storage and insulation
D. Oil secretion
Correct Answer: C. Fat storage and insulation
Explanation: The subcutaneous (hypodermis) layer provides insulation, stores fat for energy, and cushions internal organs.
Question 39:
Which skin disorder is often treated with light therapy and is autoimmune in nature?
A. Psoriasis
B. Rosacea
C. Eczema
D. Dermatitis
Correct Answer: A. Psoriasis
Explanation: Psoriasis is an autoimmune condition where skin cells grow too quickly. Light therapy (phototherapy) can reduce inflammation and slow cell turnover.
Question 40:
Which pigment gives skin its brown or black color?
A. Carotene
B. Hemoglobin
C. Melanin
D. Bilirubin
Correct Answer: C. Melanin
Explanation: Melanin is produced by melanocytes and determines skin, hair, and eye color. More melanin results in darker skin tones.
Question 41:
What skin layer is responsible for cell reproduction and growth?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Stratum granulosum
Correct Answer: C. Stratum germinativum
Explanation: Also called the basal layer, the stratum germinativum is the deepest part of the epidermis where new skin cells (keratinocytes) are produced.
Question 42:
Which gland is primarily responsible for regulating body temperature through perspiration?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Endocrine gland
C. Apocrine gland
D. Eccrine gland
Correct Answer: D. Eccrine gland
Explanation: Eccrine sweat glands are distributed throughout the body and help regulate temperature by releasing sweat.
Question 43:
Which of the following skin issues is considered a fungal infection?
A. Tinea corporis
B. Herpes simplex
C. Impetigo
D. Warts
Correct Answer: A. Tinea corporis
Explanation: Tinea corporis, or ringworm, is a contagious fungal infection characterized by red, ring-like rashes.
Question 44:
Which skin condition appears as dilated capillaries, usually on the cheeks and nose?
A. Acne
B. Rosacea
C. Eczema
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: B. Rosacea
Explanation: Rosacea is a chronic condition causing redness and visible blood vessels, commonly triggered by heat, stress, or spicy foods.
Question 45:
Which part of the skin contains blood vessels and nerves?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum spinosum
Correct Answer: B. Dermis
Explanation: The dermis, located beneath the epidermis, contains connective tissue, blood vessels, nerve endings, and lymph vessels.
Question 46:
Which of the following is a contagious bacterial skin infection common in children?
A. Scabies
B. Impetigo
C. Rosacea
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: B. Impetigo
Explanation: Impetigo is a bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, forming honey-colored crusts on the skin.
Question 47:
Which term describes an area of thickened skin caused by repeated friction or pressure?
A. Wheal
B. Keloid
C. Callus
D. Crust
Correct Answer: C. Callus
Explanation: A callus forms as a protective response to continuous friction, typically on hands or feet.
Question 48:
What is the name of the pigment-producing cells in the skin?
A. Keratinocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Melanocytes
D. Langerhans cells
Correct Answer: C. Melanocytes
Explanation: Melanocytes are located in the basal layer and produce melanin, the pigment that protects against UV radiation.
Question 49:
Which skin disorder results in itchy, inflamed, red skin, often linked to allergies?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Tinea
D. Vitiligo
Correct Answer: B. Eczema
Explanation: Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition often associated with allergies and immune dysfunction.
Question 50:
Which of the following is an example of a skin appendage?
A. Epidermis
B. Collagen
C. Sebaceous gland
D. Melanocyte
Correct Answer: C. Sebaceous gland
Explanation: Skin appendages include structures like sebaceous glands, sweat glands, hair, and nails that originate in the dermis and assist in body regulation and protection.
Question 51:
What is the oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands?
A. Collagen
B. Sweat
C. Sebum
D. Keratin
Correct Answer: C. Sebum
Explanation: Sebum is a lipid-rich substance that lubricates and protects the skin and hair, helping to maintain hydration and barrier function.
Question 52:
Which skin layer contains collagen and elastin fibers?
A. Epidermis
B. Stratum corneum
C. Dermis
D. Subcutaneous tissue
Correct Answer: C. Dermis
Explanation: The dermis supports the skin’s strength and elasticity through collagen (for structure) and elastin (for flexibility).
Question 53:
Which term describes a lack of melanin pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes?
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Albinism
C. Melasma
D. Vitiligo
Correct Answer: B. Albinism
Explanation: Albinism is a genetic condition in which melanin is not produced, resulting in pale skin, white hair, and light eyes.
Question 54:
Which skin condition is caused by clogged hair follicles with oil and dead skin cells?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Psoriasis
D. Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: B. Acne vulgaris
Explanation: Acne results from clogged pores, often involving bacteria (P. acnes) and inflammation, particularly in adolescents and young adults.
Question 55:
What is the function of Langerhans cells in the epidermis?
A. Producing keratin
B. Producing sweat
C. Detecting touch
D. Fighting infection
Correct Answer: D. Fighting infection
Explanation: Langerhans cells are part of the immune system and help identify and attack pathogens entering through the skin.
Question 56:
What is the deepest layer of the epidermis?
A. Stratum lucidum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale
Correct Answer: D. Stratum basale
Explanation: Also known as the stratum germinativum, this layer is responsible for generating new skin cells.
Question 57:
Which term refers to an abnormal growth of skin tissue, such as a mole or wart?
A. Lesion
B. Nevus
C. Papule
D. Hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D. Hypertrophy
Explanation: Hypertrophy refers to abnormal growths of skin tissue, including benign overgrowths like moles and warts.
Question 58:
Which of the following is considered a secondary skin lesion?
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Crust
D. Pustule
Correct Answer: C. Crust
Explanation: Secondary lesions develop from a primary skin issue; crusts form when serum, blood, or pus dries on the surface.
Question 59:
What is the purpose of melanin in the skin?
A. Hydration
B. Pigmentation and UV protection
C. Temperature regulation
D. Exfoliation
Correct Answer: B. Pigmentation and UV protection
Explanation: Melanin gives skin its color and provides protection against harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Question 60:
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?
A. Protection
B. Absorption
C. Hormone production
D. Sensation
Correct Answer: C. Hormone production
Explanation: While the skin performs many vital functions (e.g., barrier, regulation, sensation), hormone production is typically the function of endocrine organs.
Chapter 4: Hair and Scalp Structure, Disorders & Treatments
Core Topics Covered:
- Anatomy of the hair and scalp
- Hair growth cycles
- Common scalp disorders and conditions
- Hair analysis
- Professional treatment knowledge
This chapter contains ~60 PSI-style questions with detailed answers and explanations to help you pass the theory licensing exam in cosmetology.
Question 1:
What is the outermost layer of the hair shaft?
A. Cortex
B. Cuticle
C. Medulla
D. Follicle
Correct Answer: B. Cuticle
Explanation: The cuticle is the outermost protective layer of the hair shaft, made of overlapping transparent cells that protect the inner layers from damage.
Question 2:
What part of the hair provides strength, elasticity, and natural color?
A. Cuticle
B. Cortex
C. Medulla
D. Sebaceous gland
Correct Answer: B. Cortex
Explanation: The cortex is the thickest layer of the hair and contains melanin (pigment) and keratin, which give the hair its strength and color.
Question 3:
Which part of the hair is located beneath the scalp surface and includes the hair bulb?
A. Hair shaft
B. Hair fiber
C. Hair root
D. Hair cortex
Correct Answer: C. Hair root
Explanation: The hair root is the portion of the hair embedded in the follicle under the scalp. It includes the bulb, where cell division occurs.
Question 4:
What is the hair follicle?
A. The part of the hair visible above the skin
B. The gland that lubricates the hair
C. The tube-like pocket in the skin from which hair grows
D. A type of hair shaft
Correct Answer: C. The tube-like pocket in the skin from which hair grows
Explanation: Hair follicles are responsible for anchoring each hair into the skin and house the root, bulb, and associated structures like sebaceous glands.
Question 5:
Which muscle causes hair to stand up when cold or scared (goosebumps)?
A. Orbicularis oculi
B. Arrector pili
C. Levator labii
D. Sternocleidomastoid
Correct Answer: B. Arrector pili
Explanation: The arrector pili is a small involuntary muscle at the base of each hair follicle that contracts in response to cold or emotion, making the hair stand up.
Question 6:
Which phase of hair growth is the active growing phase?
A. Catagen
B. Telogen
C. Anagen
D. Dormant
Correct Answer: C. Anagen
Explanation: The anagen phase is the longest phase of hair growth and involves active cell division and new hair production.
Question 7:
What is the transitional phase of hair growth, where cell division stops?
A. Anagen
B. Telogen
C. Catagen
D. Resting
Correct Answer: C. Catagen
Explanation: The catagen phase marks the end of active hair growth and is a brief transition where the follicle shrinks.
Question 8:
What is the resting phase of the hair growth cycle?
A. Anagen
B. Telogen
C. Catagen
D. Matrix
Correct Answer: B. Telogen
Explanation: The telogen phase is the resting phase of the hair cycle, where hair is no longer growing and may eventually shed.
Question 9:
Which of the following hair disorders is characterized by hair loss in round patches?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Alopecia areata
C. Trichorrhexis nodosa
D. Canities
Correct Answer: B. Alopecia areata
Explanation: Alopecia areata is an autoimmune disorder where the body attacks hair follicles, leading to patchy hair loss on the scalp or body.
Question 10:
Which condition refers to excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair is normally minimal?
A. Hypertrichosis
B. Hirsutism
C. Alopecia totalis
D. Trichoptilosis
Correct Answer: B. Hirsutism
Explanation: Hirsutism is the result of hormonal imbalance or genetics and often leads to unwanted, male-pattern hair growth in women.
Question 11:
What is the technical term for split ends?
A. Trichorrhexis nodosa
B. Monilethrix
C. Trichoptilosis
D. Canities
Correct Answer: C. Trichoptilosis
Explanation: Trichoptilosis refers to the splitting or fraying of the hair shaft, commonly known as split ends, often caused by mechanical or thermal damage.
Question 12:
Which scalp condition is a fungal infection causing scaly, itchy patches and hair loss?
A. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: C. Tinea capitis
Explanation: Tinea capitis is a ringworm infection of the scalp caused by a fungus, leading to inflammation, itchiness, and temporary hair loss.
Question 13:
Which scalp condition is characterized by chronic dandruff and inflammation?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Psoriasis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Scabies
Correct Answer: C. Seborrheic dermatitis
Explanation: Seborrheic dermatitis causes flaking and redness of the scalp and is commonly associated with dandruff. It is not caused by poor hygiene but may worsen with stress or climate.
Question 14:
Which disorder is marked by gray or white hair due to the loss of pigment?
A. Canities
B. Trichoptilosis
C. Alopecia
D. Fragilitas crinium
Correct Answer: A. Canities
Explanation: Canities is the technical term for the graying of hair due to a loss of melanin, often occurring naturally with age.
Question 15:
What is the correct term for hair breakage due to weakened shafts with knotted nodes?
A. Trichorrhexis nodosa
B. Monilethrix
C. Fragilitas crinium
D. Hypertrichosis
Correct Answer: A. Trichorrhexis nodosa
Explanation: This disorder causes thickening and nodules along the hair shaft that lead to easy breakage, often from trauma or chemical overprocessing.
Question 16:
What is the technical term for abnormal brittleness of hair?
A. Monilethrix
B. Fragilitas crinium
C. Trichoptilosis
D. Hirsutism
Correct Answer: B. Fragilitas crinium
Explanation: Fragilitas crinium is the condition in which the hair is extremely fragile and brittle, often breaking with minimal force.
Question 17:
Which hair analysis tool helps assess diameter, porosity, and elasticity?
A. Microscope
B. Hair analyzer machine
C. Visual and tactile examination
D. pH meter
Correct Answer: C. Visual and tactile examination
Explanation: Cosmetologists commonly use their hands and eyes to feel and observe the hair’s texture, porosity, elasticity, and density.
Question 18:
High porosity in hair usually indicates:
A. Healthy cuticle layers
B. Resistance to moisture
C. Damaged or lifted cuticle
D. Low ability to absorb color
Correct Answer: C. Damaged or lifted cuticle
Explanation: Highly porous hair has raised or damaged cuticles, allowing moisture to enter and escape easily. It tends to absorb products quickly but may not retain them well.
Question 19:
What does low elasticity in the hair indicate?
A. It’s overly oily
B. It has high water content
C. It’s prone to breaking
D. It’s highly flexible
Correct Answer: C. It’s prone to breaking
Explanation: Elasticity refers to the hair’s ability to stretch and return to its original length. Low elasticity often means weak or damaged hair that breaks easily.
Question 20:
Hair texture refers to:
A. The number of hair strands per square inch
B. The pattern of natural hair growth
C. The diameter of individual hair strands
D. The condition of the scalp
Correct Answer: C. The diameter of individual hair strands
Explanation: Texture can be fine, medium, or coarse and influences how hair reacts to chemicals and treatments.
Question 21:
Which of the following best describes the anagen phase of hair growth?
A. Resting phase
B. Shedding phase
C. Active growing phase
D. Transitional phase
Correct Answer: C. Active growing phase
Explanation: The anagen phase is the first stage of the hair growth cycle and can last several years. During this phase, the hair is actively growing from the follicle.
Question 22:
The catagen phase is best described as:
A. The longest growth phase
B. The resting stage
C. A short transitional phase
D. The phase when the hair falls out
Correct Answer: C. A short transitional phase
Explanation: The catagen phase lasts a few weeks and signals the end of the active growth period. Hair detaches from the blood supply and prepares to rest.
Question 23:
What occurs during the telogen phase of hair growth?
A. New hair grows beside old hair
B. Hair is actively pushed out
C. Hair detaches and rests
D. The follicle enlarges
Correct Answer: C. Hair detaches and rests
Explanation: Telogen is the resting phase when the hair follicle is inactive, and the hair eventually sheds, making room for new growth.
Question 24:
On average, how many hairs does a healthy person lose per day?
A. 10–20
B. 25–50
C. 50–100
D. 150–200
Correct Answer: C. 50–100
Explanation: Normal daily hair loss is about 50 to 100 hairs as part of the natural hair growth cycle, especially during the telogen phase.
Question 25:
What is the primary function of the sebaceous glands in the scalp?
A. To produce melanin
B. To produce sebum
C. To regulate hair elasticity
D. To supply oxygen to follicles
Correct Answer: B. To produce sebum
Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, a natural oil that lubricates the hair and scalp, maintaining moisture and softness.
Question 26:
Which of the following conditions is NOT considered contagious?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Scabies
C. Pediculosis capitis
D. Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: D. Alopecia areata
Explanation: Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition and is not contagious, whereas the others are infections caused by fungi, mites, or lice.
Question 27:
Hair density refers to:
A. The thickness of individual strands
B. The number of hairs per square inch of scalp
C. The length of the hair shaft
D. The elasticity of the hair
Correct Answer: B. The number of hairs per square inch of scalp
Explanation: Density describes how many hairs are found on a section of the scalp, affecting how full or thick the hair appears.
Question 28:
Which term refers to excessive hair growth in areas where hair is normally minimal or absent?
A. Alopecia
B. Hypertrichosis
C. Canities
D. Monilethrix
Correct Answer: B. Hypertrichosis
Explanation: Hypertrichosis is abnormal hair growth that can occur anywhere on the body, often due to genetics or medical conditions.
Question 29:
What is the main protein component of hair?
A. Collagen
B. Elastin
C. Keratin
D. Melanin
Correct Answer: C. Keratin
Explanation: Hair is composed primarily of keratin, a strong, fibrous protein that also makes up nails and the outer layer of skin.
Question 30:
Which structure anchors hair into the skin?
A. Hair bulb
B. Hair shaft
C. Hair follicle
D. Arrector pili
Correct Answer: C. Hair follicle
Explanation: The hair follicle is the tunnel-like segment in the dermis that surrounds the root and anchors the hair into the skin.
Question 31:
Which layer of the hair shaft provides strength and elasticity?
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Cuticle
D. Follicle
Correct Answer: B. Cortex
Explanation: The cortex is the middle layer of the hair shaft that contains the majority of the hair’s strength, pigment, and elasticity. It’s where chemical changes like coloring and perming occur.
Question 32:
The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the:
A. Medulla
B. Matrix
C. Cortex
D. Cuticle
Correct Answer: D. Cuticle
Explanation: The cuticle is the protective outer layer of the hair shaft composed of overlapping cells that shield the inner layers from damage.
Question 33:
Which of the following best describes the medulla in hair structure?
A. A layer found only in fine hair
B. The innermost layer, sometimes absent
C. A protective outer coating
D. The main layer for elasticity
Correct Answer: B. The innermost layer, sometimes absent
Explanation: The medulla is the central core of the hair shaft. It is not always present, especially in very fine or light hair.
Question 34:
Which of the following is a fungal infection of the scalp?
A. Seborrhea
B. Tinea capitis
C. Psoriasis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B. Tinea capitis
Explanation: Tinea capitis is a contagious fungal infection that affects the scalp and hair shafts, often resulting in scaly patches and hair loss.
Question 35:
Which condition is characterized by excessive shedding of hair after pregnancy or stress?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Telogen effluvium
C. Trichotillomania
D. Hirsutism
Correct Answer: B. Telogen effluvium
Explanation: Telogen effluvium is a temporary hair loss condition typically triggered by stress, hormonal changes, or trauma, causing many hairs to enter the resting (telogen) phase prematurely.
Question 36:
Which of the following is a chronic scalp condition marked by flaking and sometimes redness?
A. Dandruff
B. Psoriasis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: C. Seborrheic dermatitis
Explanation: Seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition causing scaly patches, red skin, and stubborn dandruff, especially in oily areas.
Question 37:
What is the purpose of a scalp analysis before a hair service?
A. To choose the right comb
B. To detect scalp or hair disorders
C. To determine hair length
D. To ensure shampoo is effective
Correct Answer: B. To detect scalp or hair disorders
Explanation: A proper scalp analysis allows professionals to identify any abnormalities such as infections, abrasions, or disorders before performing services.
Question 38:
What is the technical term for dandruff?
A. Tinea
B. Pityriasis
C. Pediculosis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B. Pityriasis
Explanation: Pityriasis refers to dandruff, a condition characterized by shedding of excessive amounts of white or gray scales from the scalp.
Question 39:
Trichoptilosis is the technical term for:
A. Hair loss
B. Split ends
C. Dry scalp
D. Greasy hair
Correct Answer: B. Split ends
Explanation: Trichoptilosis, or split ends, occurs when the hair shaft splits or frays due to excessive dryness, damage, or over-processing.
Question 40:
Which hair condition is most often caused by tight hairstyles and prolonged tension on the hairline?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Androgenetic alopecia
C. Traction alopecia
D. Trichorrhexis nodosa
Correct Answer: C. Traction alopecia
Explanation: Traction alopecia results from continuous pulling on the hair, commonly from tight ponytails, braids, or weaves, leading to thinning or bald spots around the hairline.
Question 41:
What part of the hair structure anchors the hair into the skin?
A. Hair bulb
B. Hair shaft
C. Hair follicle
D. Medulla
Correct Answer: C. Hair follicle
Explanation: The hair follicle is a tube-like depression in the skin that contains the hair root and anchors the hair into the skin. It houses the dermal papilla and sebaceous gland.
Question 42:
Which part of the hair produces new hair cells?
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Matrix
D. Cuticle
Correct Answer: C. Matrix
Explanation: The matrix is the growth area at the base of the hair bulb where mitosis (cell division) occurs to produce new hair cells.
Question 43:
Which of the following is a sign of androgenetic alopecia?
A. Circular bald patches
B. Patchy hair loss with inflammation
C. Hair thinning in a pattern
D. Complete body hair loss
Correct Answer: C. Hair thinning in a pattern
Explanation: Androgenetic alopecia is hereditary hair loss that typically follows a pattern—thinning at the crown or receding hairline in men, and overall thinning in women.
Question 44:
The sebaceous glands produce:
A. Sweat
B. Oil (sebum)
C. Keratin
D. Melanin
Correct Answer: B. Oil (sebum)
Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, a natural oil that lubricates and protects the skin and hair.
Question 45:
Which is a bacterial infection that results in inflamed hair follicles and pustules?
A. Tinea
B. Pediculosis capitis
C. Folliculitis
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: C. Folliculitis
Explanation: Folliculitis is the inflammation of one or more hair follicles, often caused by bacterial infection and resulting in red, pus-filled bumps.
Question 46:
What is the purpose of the arrector pili muscle?
A. To create oil
B. To raise the hair when cold or frightened
C. To grow new hair
D. To color the hair
Correct Answer: B. To raise the hair when cold or frightened
Explanation: The arrector pili is a tiny muscle attached to the hair follicle that contracts to cause the hair to stand upright, creating goosebumps.
Question 47:
Hair grows in cycles. What is the resting phase of hair growth called?
A. Anagen
B. Catagen
C. Telogen
D. Matrix
Correct Answer: C. Telogen
Explanation: The telogen phase is the resting stage of the hair growth cycle, when the hair is fully formed and eventually sheds to allow new growth.
Question 48:
Excessive hair growth in areas not normally hairy is called:
A. Alopecia
B. Hirsutism
C. Canities
D. Hypertrichosis
Correct Answer: B. Hirsutism
Explanation: Hirsutism is excessive hair growth in women in areas where men typically grow hair, such as the face, chest, or back, often due to hormonal imbalance.
Question 49:
Which of the following is NOT a scalp condition?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Dandruff
C. Canities
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
Correct Answer: C. Canities
Explanation: Canities refers to the loss of hair pigment, resulting in gray or white hair. It is a hair color condition, not a scalp condition.
Question 50:
The average daily hair loss for a healthy individual is approximately:
A. 10–20 hairs
B. 25–35 hairs
C. 50–100 hairs
D. 200–300 hairs
Correct Answer: C. 50–100 hairs
Explanation: It is normal to lose about 50 to 100 hairs per day as part of the natural shedding and regrowth cycle.
Question 51:
What is the most common cause of dandruff?
A. Dry skin
B. Oily scalp
C. Fungal organism (Malassezia)
D. Poor hygiene
Correct Answer: C. Fungal organism (Malassezia)
Explanation: Dandruff is most often caused by Malassezia, a naturally occurring yeast that feeds on sebum and can trigger inflammation and flaking in susceptible individuals.
Question 52:
Which hair structure contains the pigment that gives hair its natural color?
A. Medulla
B. Cuticle
C. Matrix
D. Cortex
Correct Answer: D. Cortex
Explanation: Melanin, the pigment responsible for hair color, is stored in the cortex, the middle layer of the hair shaft.
Question 53:
Hair that is overly porous and stretches excessively when wet is considered:
A. Resistant
B. Elastic
C. Hydrophobic
D. Damaged
Correct Answer: D. Damaged
Explanation: Overly porous hair that stretches too much and breaks easily is usually the result of chemical or physical damage, indicating a compromised cuticle.
Question 54:
Which term refers to hair loss in round or irregular patches without inflammation or scarring?
A. Androgenetic alopecia
B. Alopecia areata
C. Traction alopecia
D. Postpartum alopecia
Correct Answer: B. Alopecia areata
Explanation: Alopecia areata is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks hair follicles, causing patchy hair loss.
Question 55:
The ability of hair to absorb moisture is called:
A. Elasticity
B. Density
C. Porosity
D. Texture
Correct Answer: C. Porosity
Explanation: Porosity measures how well the hair shaft can absorb and retain moisture, with high porosity indicating damaged or open cuticle layers.
Question 56:
What should a cosmetologist do before performing a scalp treatment on a client with suspected scalp disorder?
A. Begin the treatment immediately
B. Use strong medicated shampoo
C. Refer the client to a physician
D. Apply conditioner first
Correct Answer: C. Refer the client to a physician
Explanation: Cosmetologists are not permitted to diagnose scalp conditions. If an abnormal scalp disorder is suspected, the client must be referred to a medical professional.
Question 57:
What is the hair’s natural protective outer layer?
A. Cortex
B. Cuticle
C. Medulla
D. Root sheath
Correct Answer: B. Cuticle
Explanation: The cuticle is the tough, outermost layer of the hair that protects the inner layers (cortex and medulla) from damage and moisture loss.
Question 58:
Which term refers to the number of individual hair strands per square inch on the scalp?
A. Texture
B. Density
C. Elasticity
D. Growth rate
Correct Answer: B. Density
Explanation: Hair density is a measure of how many hair strands are present in a given area of the scalp, influencing the fullness or thinness of hair.
Question 59:
Hair that has not been chemically treated or altered is referred to as:
A. Virgin hair
B. Resistant hair
C. Natural hair
D. Healthy hair
Correct Answer: A. Virgin hair
Explanation: Virgin hair is hair that has never been chemically processed with color, perm, relaxer, or bleach and is in its natural state.
Question 60:
The portion of hair that projects above the skin is the:
A. Hair bulb
B. Hair shaft
C. Hair root
D. Matrix
Correct Answer: B. Hair shaft
Explanation: The hair shaft is the visible part of the hair that extends beyond the scalp and is made of keratinized cells.
Chapter 5: Chemistry for Cosmetology
Core Concepts: Matter, pH scale, ingredients, chemical reactions, product safety, and basics of cosmetic formulation.
Total Questions: ~60
Each question includes the correct answer and a clear explanation to reinforce your understanding.
Question 1:
What is matter?
A. Anything that cannot be measured
B. Anything that has mass and occupies space
C. Only liquids and solids
D. Elements that cannot bond
Correct Answer: B. Anything that has mass and occupies space
Explanation: Matter includes all physical substances—solids, liquids, and gases—that take up space and have mass. This forms the foundation of chemistry in cosmetology.
Question 2:
What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element?
A. Molecule
B. Atom
C. Ion
D. Cell
Correct Answer: B. Atom
Explanation: Atoms are the building blocks of matter. They combine to form molecules, which make up all substances used in cosmetology.
Question 3:
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A. Melting wax
B. Dissolving sugar in water
C. Burning hair
D. Braiding hair
Correct Answer: C. Burning hair
Explanation: A chemical change involves altering the substance’s structure (like oxidation or combustion), whereas melting or dissolving are physical changes.
Question 4:
What is the pH of pure water?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
Correct Answer: C. 7
Explanation: Pure water is neutral with a pH of 7. pH measures the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, which is essential in product formulation.
Question 5:
The term “alkaline” refers to substances with a pH:
A. Less than 7
B. Equal to 7
C. Greater than 7
D. Exactly 0
Correct Answer: C. Greater than 7
Explanation: Alkaline substances have a higher pH than 7 and are commonly used in relaxers, perms, and some shampoos.
Question 6:
Which of the following substances is considered an acid?
A. Ammonia
B. Soap
C. Lemon juice
D. Lye
Correct Answer: C. Lemon juice
Explanation: Acids have a pH below 7. Lemon juice is acidic and often used in natural treatments for its exfoliating effects.
Question 7:
What does SDS stand for?
A. Skin Damage Sheet
B. Safety Data Sheet
C. Sterile Disinfection Summary
D. Salon Damage Scale
Correct Answer: B. Safety Data Sheet
Explanation: SDS provides critical information about chemical products, including hazards, first aid, and storage—required by OSHA in all salons.
Question 8:
What kind of bond is broken during a chemical hair relaxer process?
A. Peptide bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Salt bond
D. Disulfide bond
Correct Answer: D. Disulfide bond
Explanation: Disulfide bonds are strong chemical side bonds that are permanently broken and restructured during chemical straightening processes.
Question 9:
What term refers to a chemical reaction that releases heat?
A. Endothermic
B. Neutralization
C. Exothermic
D. Oxidative
Correct Answer: C. Exothermic
Explanation: Exothermic reactions give off heat, which is common in certain hair color and perm formulations that heat up as they activate.
Question 10:
Which is an example of an emulsifier?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Cetyl alcohol
D. Water
Correct Answer: C. Cetyl alcohol
Explanation: Emulsifiers help blend oil and water-based ingredients in creams and lotions, stabilizing mixtures used in skincare and haircare.
Question 11:
What is an emulsion?
A. A chemical reaction between acid and base
B. A suspension of solid particles in water
C. A physical mixture of two immiscible substances stabilized by an emulsifier
D. A solution of salt and water
Correct Answer: C. A physical mixture of two immiscible substances stabilized by an emulsifier
Explanation: Emulsions are mixtures of two substances (like oil and water) that normally don’t blend. Emulsifiers allow them to stay mixed, critical in lotions and creams.
Question 12:
Which of the following is a physical change?
A. Oxidation of hair color
B. Curling hair with a hot iron
C. Neutralization of a perm
D. Relaxing hair
Correct Answer: B. Curling hair with a hot iron
Explanation: Physical changes alter appearance but not the chemical structure. Using heat to curl hair changes its form temporarily.
Question 13:
In chemistry, a solution is:
A. A solid mixture
B. A chemical reaction
C. A stable mixture of two or more substances
D. A combination of liquids and gases
Correct Answer: C. A stable mixture of two or more substances
Explanation: A solution is made when a solute (like sugar) dissolves completely into a solvent (like water) and remains stable.
Question 14:
What is the primary purpose of a pH-balanced shampoo?
A. To lighten hair
B. To create more lather
C. To match the natural pH of hair and scalp
D. To break disulfide bonds
Correct Answer: C. To match the natural pH of hair and scalp
Explanation: Hair and scalp have a natural pH of 4.5–5.5. A pH-balanced shampoo helps maintain the protective acid mantle and avoid irritation.
Question 15:
Which chemical ingredient is commonly used in permanent wave solutions?
A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Ammonium thioglycolate
C. Acetic acid
D. Isopropyl alcohol
Correct Answer: B. Ammonium thioglycolate
Explanation: Ammonium thioglycolate is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds during perming, allowing the hair to be reshaped.
Question 16:
What is oxidation?
A. Adding hydrogen to a substance
B. Mixing a base and an acid
C. The chemical reaction that occurs when oxygen is added to a substance
D. Removing heat from a chemical
Correct Answer: C. The chemical reaction that occurs when oxygen is added to a substance
Explanation: Oxidation is essential in hair coloring and bleaching, where oxygen from peroxide changes pigment molecules.
Question 17:
Which chemical is commonly used as a neutralizer in perms?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Ammonia
D. Baking soda
Correct Answer: A. Hydrogen peroxide
Explanation: After the perm solution breaks down the bonds, hydrogen peroxide is used to “fix” or re-bond the new shape into the hair.
Question 18:
Which of the following has the highest pH?
A. Hair relaxer
B. Conditioner
C. Shampoo
D. Water
Correct Answer: A. Hair relaxer
Explanation: Relaxers are highly alkaline (often pH 12–14) to break down the hair’s protein structure and straighten curls.
Question 19:
The pH scale ranges from:
A. 1 to 10
B. 0 to 10
C. 1 to 14
D. 0 to 14
Correct Answer: D. 0 to 14
Explanation: The pH scale measures the acidity or alkalinity of a substance. 0 is very acidic, 7 is neutral, and 14 is very alkaline.
Question 20:
Which of the following is a base (alkaline substance)?
A. Lemon juice
B. Vinegar
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Citric acid
Correct Answer: C. Sodium hydroxide
Explanation: Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkaline compound used in chemical hair relaxers. It has a very high pH and must be handled with care.
Question 21:
What is the main purpose of surfactants in shampoo?
A. Add fragrance
B. Change hair color
C. Remove oil and dirt
D. Provide vitamins
Correct Answer: C. Remove oil and dirt
Explanation: Surfactants are cleansing agents that reduce surface tension between oil/water, allowing water to wash away grease and debris from hair and scalp.
Question 22:
Which type of bond is most affected by changes in pH?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Disulfide bond
D. Salt bond
Correct Answer: D. Salt bond
Explanation: Salt bonds are easily broken by changes in pH. They are weak but plentiful and contribute to the hair’s shape and strength.
Question 23:
A substance with a pH of 3 is considered:
A. Slightly alkaline
B. Neutral
C. Strongly acidic
D. Mildly basic
Correct Answer: C. Strongly acidic
Explanation: The lower the pH, the more acidic the substance. A pH of 3 is highly acidic, like vinegar or lemon juice.
Question 24:
Which bond is broken during a permanent wave process?
A. Peptide
B. Hydrogen
C. Salt
D. Disulfide
Correct Answer: D. Disulfide
Explanation: Disulfide bonds are strong bonds in the hair structure and are permanently broken and re-formed during chemical treatments like perms and relaxers.
Question 25:
Which of the following is NOT a physical mixture?
A. Salt water
B. Vinegar
C. Oil and water
D. Air
Correct Answer: B. Vinegar
Explanation: Vinegar is a solution formed through a chemical reaction (fermentation), unlike salt water or air, which are physical mixtures.
Question 26:
What happens when an acid is mixed with an alkali in equal proportions?
A. They form a base
B. They explode
C. They neutralize each other
D. They become more acidic
Correct Answer: C. They neutralize each other
Explanation: Acids and bases (alkalis) neutralize when mixed, forming water and salt. This is key in adjusting product pH levels.
Question 27:
Which of the following is a characteristic of an alkaline product?
A. Soothes the scalp
B. Causes the hair shaft to contract
C. Softens and swells the hair shaft
D. Reduces hair porosity
Correct Answer: C. Softens and swells the hair shaft
Explanation: Alkaline products open the hair cuticle, allowing chemicals to penetrate deeply—important for color, perms, and relaxers.
Question 28:
Which of the following is NOT true about hydrogen bonds?
A. Easily broken by water
B. Reform as hair dries
C. Stronger than disulfide bonds
D. Provide temporary change in hair style
Correct Answer: C. Stronger than disulfide bonds
Explanation: Hydrogen bonds are weaker than disulfide bonds and break easily with moisture or heat. They’re important in styling, not chemical changes.
Question 29:
What is the role of preservatives in cosmetic products?
A. Increase shine
B. Act as a fragrance
C. Prevent product spoilage
D. Create foam
Correct Answer: C. Prevent product spoilage
Explanation: Preservatives inhibit the growth of bacteria and fungi, keeping products safe and effective over time.
Question 30:
The majority of shampoos have a pH of:
A. 2–3
B. 4.5–5.5
C. 6.5–7.5
D. 9–10
Correct Answer: B. 4.5–5.5
Explanation: This range is close to the natural pH of hair and scalp, which helps maintain hair health and protect the cuticle.
Question 31:
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Combing hair
B. Braiding hair
C. Hair coloring
D. Blow drying hair
Correct Answer: C. Hair coloring
Explanation: A chemical change alters the internal structure of the hair—coloring involves a chemical reaction that permanently changes the pigment.
Question 32:
What does SDS stand for in salon chemical safety?
A. Salon Disinfectant Solution
B. Safety Data Sheet
C. Sanitation and Disinfection Sheet
D. Solvent Disposal Summary
Correct Answer: B. Safety Data Sheet
Explanation: SDS (formerly MSDS) provides detailed information on chemicals—handling, storage, risks, and emergency procedures. It’s required by OSHA.
Question 33:
What is the pH scale range?
A. 1–7
B. 0–10
C. 0–14
D. 5–10
Correct Answer: C. 0–14
Explanation: The pH scale measures how acidic or basic a substance is. 0 is most acidic, 7 is neutral, and 14 is most alkaline.
Question 34:
Which bond is not broken during chemical texture services?
A. Salt bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Peptide bond
D. Disulfide bond
Correct Answer: C. Peptide bond
Explanation: Peptide (or end) bonds form the backbone of hair’s structure and are not broken during perms or relaxers—they’d damage the hair irreversibly.
Question 35:
What is a solution?
A. A mixture where particles can be seen
B. A permanent emulsion
C. A stable mixture of two or more substances
D. An unstable mixture of oil and water
Correct Answer: C. A stable mixture of two or more substances
Explanation: In a solution, the components are evenly mixed on a molecular level and do not separate (e.g., salt water).
Question 36:
What is the effect of an alkaline pH on hair?
A. Hardens and closes the cuticle
B. Softens and opens the cuticle
C. Neutralizes disulfide bonds
D. Removes natural oils only
Correct Answer: B. Softens and opens the cuticle
Explanation: Alkaline products lift the hair cuticle, allowing chemicals (like color or relaxers) to penetrate more effectively.
Question 37:
Which of the following is NOT a physical change?
A. Water freezing into ice
B. Hair being curled with a curling iron
C. Hair being relaxed with chemicals
D. Water evaporating from a towel
Correct Answer: C. Hair being relaxed with chemicals
Explanation: Chemical relaxers cause a chemical change by breaking and reforming disulfide bonds—this alters the hair’s structure permanently.
Question 38:
Which product would likely have the highest pH?
A. Conditioner
B. Neutralizing shampoo
C. Hair relaxer
D. Styling gel
Correct Answer: C. Hair relaxer
Explanation: Relaxers are highly alkaline to break disulfide bonds and straighten hair. Their pH can be 9–14.
Question 39:
An example of an oil-in-water emulsion is:
A. Vinegar
B. Moisturizing lotion
C. Salt water
D. Hair spray
Correct Answer: B. Moisturizing lotion
Explanation: Lotions are oil-in-water emulsions—the oil is evenly dispersed in water, forming a stable, smooth product that absorbs into the skin.
Question 40:
Which chemical is commonly used as a reducing agent in permanent waves?
A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Thioglycolic acid
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: C. Thioglycolic acid
Explanation: Thioglycolic acid breaks disulfide bonds in the hair during a perm process, allowing the hair to take a new shape when neutralized.
Question 41:
What type of bond is responsible for the strength and shape of the hair shaft?
A. Van der Waals forces
B. Salt bonds
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Disulfide bonds
Correct Answer: D. Disulfide bonds
Explanation: Disulfide bonds are strong chemical side bonds that form between sulfur atoms in the hair. They are the most significant bonds altered during chemical services like perms and relaxers.
Question 42:
What happens when you mix an acid and a base?
A. It produces more acidity
B. It always explodes
C. It neutralizes and forms salt and water
D. It creates a new gas
Correct Answer: C. It neutralizes and forms salt and water
Explanation: The reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization. This reaction results in a more neutral solution and often produces water and a salt.
Question 43:
What is the chemical symbol for hydrogen peroxide?
A. HO
B. H₂O
C. H₂O₂
D. O₂H
Correct Answer: C. H₂O₂
Explanation: Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) is a common oxidizing agent used in hair coloring and bleaching to develop color and lighten hair by releasing oxygen.
Question 44:
Which type of shampoo is best for chemically treated hair?
A. Clarifying shampoo
B. Medicated shampoo
C. Acid-balanced shampoo
D. Volumizing shampoo
Correct Answer: C. Acid-balanced shampoo
Explanation: Acid-balanced shampoos (pH 4.5–5.5) maintain the hair’s natural pH and help close the cuticle after chemical services, reducing damage.
Question 45:
What does pH measure?
A. Percentage of hydrogen
B. Potential hydrogen
C. Power of hydroxide
D. Pressure of helium
Correct Answer: B. Potential hydrogen
Explanation: pH measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, indicating how acidic or alkaline it is. Lower pH means more acidic; higher means more alkaline.
Question 46:
Which type of water is best for use in a salon’s chemical processes?
A. Tap water
B. Soft water
C. Hard water
D. Spring water
Correct Answer: B. Soft water
Explanation: Soft water lathers easily and doesn’t contain high levels of minerals that could interfere with chemical services. Hard water can hinder effectiveness.
Question 47:
In terms of pH, human hair is:
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Strongly acidic
D. Strongly alkaline
Correct Answer: B. Acidic
Explanation: Human hair and skin are naturally slightly acidic, with a pH around 4.5 to 5.5. This helps protect the hair cuticle and skin barrier.
Question 48:
Which of the following is considered a suspension?
A. Hair color cream
B. Salt water
C. Vinegar
D. Calamine lotion
Correct Answer: D. Calamine lotion
Explanation: A suspension is a mixture in which particles are dispersed but not dissolved. Calamine lotion contains solid particles suspended in a liquid base.
Question 49:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an alkaline product?
A. Raises the cuticle
B. Softens hair
C. Closes the cuticle
D. Increases pH above 7
Correct Answer: C. Closes the cuticle
Explanation: Alkaline products open the cuticle to allow chemical penetration. Products that close the cuticle are acidic.
Question 50:
Which term describes a substance’s ability to mix with another without separating?
A. Emulsification
B. Miscibility
C. Solubility
D. Stability
Correct Answer: B. Miscibility
Explanation: Miscibility refers to the ability of two liquids to mix completely without separating, like alcohol and water.
Question 51:
Which of the following is considered a stable emulsion used in the salon?
A. Vinegar and oil
B. Shampoo
C. Cold cream
D. Water
Correct Answer: C. Cold cream
Explanation: Cold cream is a classic example of a stable emulsion—where oil and water are mixed with the help of an emulsifier to prevent separation.
Question 52:
What is the pH of a neutral substance like distilled water?
A. 5
B. 6.5
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: C. 7
Explanation: A pH of 7 is neutral. It’s the midpoint between acidic (below 7) and alkaline (above 7) substances.
Question 53:
Which statement about hydrogen peroxide is true?
A. It deposits color only
B. It is used solely for skin sanitation
C. It acts as a reducing agent
D. It releases oxygen to develop color
Correct Answer: D. It releases oxygen to develop color
Explanation: In hair coloring, hydrogen peroxide acts as a developer by releasing oxygen that helps activate the color molecules in the dye.
Question 54:
Which product contains both an oil and water component and requires shaking before use?
A. Emulsion
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Shampoo
Correct Answer: C. Suspension
Explanation: Suspensions contain particles that will settle unless stirred or shaken. This is common in certain styling products or skin treatments.
Question 55:
In hair coloring, what does an oxidizing agent do?
A. Adds weight
B. Moisturizes the hair
C. Supplies oxygen to develop color
D. Lowers the pH
Correct Answer: C. Supplies oxygen to develop color
Explanation: Oxidizing agents like hydrogen peroxide supply the oxygen required to break down natural hair pigment and activate the color molecules.
Question 56:
The process of removing bulk or color from the hair is called:
A. Bleaching
B. Toner application
C. Neutralizing
D. Cutting
Correct Answer: A. Bleaching
Explanation: Bleaching involves a chemical lightening process where pigment is lifted from the hair using oxidizing agents.
Question 57:
What happens when a reducing agent is applied to the hair?
A. The hair becomes more acidic
B. Bonds within the hair are broken
C. The cuticle hardens
D. The hair loses moisture
Correct Answer: B. Bonds within the hair are broken
Explanation: Reducing agents are used in chemical texture services to break the disulfide bonds in the hair, allowing it to be reshaped.
Question 58:
Which of the following best describes an acid-balanced product?
A. Low pH below 4
B. High pH above 10
C. Close to hair’s natural pH
D. Has no pH
Correct Answer: C. Close to hair’s natural pH
Explanation: Acid-balanced products usually have a pH between 4.5–5.5, which is close to the natural pH of hair and skin. These are ideal for maintaining healthy cuticles.
Question 59:
Which chemical reaction is used during perming and relaxing services?
A. Physical abrasion
B. Oxidation-reduction
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
Correct Answer: B. Oxidation-reduction
Explanation: Also known as redox reactions, these involve breaking and reforming disulfide bonds in the hair to change its structure permanently.
Question 60:
Why is it important to understand chemistry in cosmetology?
A. It improves personality
B. It’s required to pass the state exam only
C. It helps prevent product misuse and ensures client safety
D. It teaches the history of salons
Correct Answer: C. It helps prevent product misuse and ensures client safety
Explanation: Knowing chemistry allows cosmetologists to safely handle products, avoid adverse reactions, and ensure effective services for clients.
Chapter 6: Electricity in Cosmetology
11. What is the primary purpose of using electrical modalities in facial treatments?
A. Stimulate nail growth
B. Add color to the skin
C. Enhance product penetration and treat skin issues
D. Dry out the skin
Correct Answer: C. Enhance product penetration and treat skin issues
Explanation: Electrical modalities like galvanic and high-frequency help estheticians treat skin more effectively—cleansing, stimulating circulation, or allowing deeper penetration of skincare products.
12. Which of the following devices converts AC to DC?
A. Rectifier
B. Converter
C. Transistor
D. Resistor
Correct Answer: A. Rectifier
Explanation: A rectifier changes alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC), which is essential for machines that require a steady, unidirectional flow of electricity.
13. What unit measures the strength of electric current?
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Watt
D. Ohm
Correct Answer: B. Ampere
Explanation: An ampere (amp) measures the number of electrons flowing through a conductor. Think of it as the volume of water moving through a pipe.
14. Which electrical term refers to the rate at which energy is used?
A. Ohm
B. Volt
C. Watt
D. Amp
Correct Answer: C. Watt
Explanation: A watt measures how quickly energy is consumed. A 100-watt bulb uses more energy per second than a 60-watt one.
15. Which of the following is a contraindication for electrical facial treatments?
A. Oily skin
B. Pregnancy
C. Aging skin
D. Mild acne
Correct Answer: B. Pregnancy
Explanation: Pregnancy, heart conditions, and pacemakers are common contraindications for electrical treatments because they may interfere with the body’s normal functioning.
16. What term describes a complete path that allows electricity to flow?
A. Open circuit
B. Insulated path
C. Closed circuit
D. Grounded line
Correct Answer: C. Closed circuit
Explanation: A closed circuit means the current has a complete path to follow. An open circuit would break the path and stop the current.
17. Which device is used to ensure electricity flows safely into the earth in case of a short circuit?
A. Transformer
B. Circuit breaker
C. Ground fault interrupter (GFI)
D. Rectifier
Correct Answer: C. Ground fault interrupter (GFI)
Explanation: A GFI detects imbalance in electric flow and shuts it off instantly to protect from shock, especially in wet areas like salons.
18. What type of machine uses microcurrents to tone facial muscles?
A. High-frequency
B. Tesla coil
C. Galvanic machine
D. Microcurrent device
Correct Answer: D. Microcurrent device
Explanation: Microcurrent technology stimulates facial muscles for a lifted appearance and improved tone—non-invasive and highly effective.
19. What color wire is typically used for grounding in an electrical plug?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Black
D. Blue
Correct Answer: B. Green
Explanation: Green or green with yellow stripes is the universal color code for grounding wires in electrical systems.
20. What is the best practice when unplugging an electrical tool in the salon?
A. Pull the cord
B. Pull the plug by the base
C. Twist the cord until it releases
D. Yank quickly for safety
Correct Answer: B. Pull the plug by the base
Explanation: Always grasp and pull the plug, not the cord, to avoid damaging wires and exposing yourself to electrical hazards.
Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concepts fully.
1. What is the unit that measures the pressure or force that pushes electric current forward through a conductor?
A. Ampere
B. Ohm
C. Volt
D. Watt
Correct Answer: C. Volt
Explanation: A volt is the unit that measures the electric pressure or force that causes electrons to move through a conductor. It’s like water pressure in a hose—more pressure, stronger flow.
2. Which of the following is an insulator?
A. Copper
B. Aluminum
C. Rubber
D. Silver
Correct Answer: C. Rubber
Explanation: An insulator does not easily conduct electricity. Rubber, glass, and plastic are common insulators used to protect users from electrical shock.
3. What does an ohm measure?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Current
D. Power
Correct Answer: B. Resistance
Explanation: An ohm is a unit that measures electrical resistance—the opposition a material offers to the flow of electric current.
4. Which type of current is used in most salon equipment?
A. Alternating Current (AC)
B. Direct Current (DC)
C. Static Current
D. Magnetic Current
Correct Answer: A. Alternating Current (AC)
Explanation: AC changes direction periodically and is commonly used in household and salon equipment because it can travel long distances efficiently.
5. What does a fuse do in an electrical system?
A. Stores electrical energy
B. Reduces current flow
C. Stops current when overloaded
D. Increases voltage
Correct Answer: C. Stops current when overloaded
Explanation: A fuse is a safety device designed to melt and open the circuit when current exceeds a safe level, preventing overheating and fire.
6. What is the primary function of a circuit breaker?
A. Convert DC to AC
B. Protect from overheating
C. Boost current
D. Measure resistance
Correct Answer: B. Protect from overheating
Explanation: A circuit breaker automatically shuts off electrical flow when there is an overload or short circuit, preventing electrical fires.
7. What kind of current does a galvanic machine use?
A. Alternating Current
B. High-frequency current
C. Direct Current
D. Inductive Current
Correct Answer: C. Direct Current
Explanation: Galvanic current is a low-level direct current used to penetrate products deep into the skin (iontophoresis) or to break down sebum (desincrustation).
8. What does Tesla High-Frequency current produce?
A. Galvanic effect
B. Mechanical vibrations
C. Heat and germicidal action
D. Light therapy
Correct Answer: C. Heat and germicidal action
Explanation: Tesla current stimulates circulation, improves metabolism, and has a germicidal effect, making it great for treating acne-prone or oily skin.
9. What safety step must be taken before using any electrical equipment in the salon?
A. Immerse the plug in water
B. Check the label for manufacturer
C. Inspect the cord and plug for damage
D. Polish the machine’s exterior
Correct Answer: C. Inspect the cord and plug for damage
Explanation: Always inspect cords for frays or damage to prevent electric shock or equipment failure.
10. Why is grounding important in salon electrical tools?
A. It creates brighter lights
B. It improves power efficiency
C. It directs excess current to earth
D. It prevents static build-up
Correct Answer: C. It directs excess current to earth
Explanation: Grounding is a safety measure that allows excess electricity to travel into the ground rather than through the body, reducing risk of shock.
21. What effect does the galvanic current have on the skin during desincrustation?
A. Hydrates the skin
B. Softens sebum and opens pores
C. Lightens pigmentation
D. Reduces redness
Correct Answer: B. Softens sebum and opens pores
Explanation: Galvanic current during desincrustation helps emulsify hardened sebum and opens follicles, making it easier to perform extractions during facials.
22. The term “anode” refers to what kind of electrode in electrical treatments?
A. Negative
B. Neutral
C. Positive
D. Grounded
Correct Answer: C. Positive
Explanation: The anode is the positively charged electrode. It is typically associated with acidic reactions that tighten the skin and reduce redness.
23. The cathode is the electrode that is:
A. Positive and attracts hydrogen
B. Negative and causes acidic reaction
C. Negative and causes alkaline reaction
D. Positive and promotes firming
Correct Answer: C. Negative and causes alkaline reaction
Explanation: The cathode is negative and used in desincrustation to soften skin and follicle buildup by creating an alkaline environment.
24. Which treatment is most appropriate for a client who has oily, congested skin?
A. Anode application
B. High-frequency with glass electrode
C. Cathode treatment (desincrustation)
D. Hot towels only
Correct Answer: C. Cathode treatment (desincrustation)
Explanation: Desincrustation uses the cathode to deep clean oily and congested skin, helping to break down excess oil.
25. Tesla high-frequency current is also known as:
A. Galvanic current
B. Faradic current
C. Violet ray
D. Direct current
Correct Answer: C. Violet ray
Explanation: The Tesla high-frequency current is called the “violet ray” due to the glow of the glass electrode when in use. It is effective for acne and stimulating circulation.
26. What does a high-frequency machine produce that helps kill acne-causing bacteria?
A. Hydrogen
B. Ozone
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
Correct Answer: B. Ozone
Explanation: High-frequency devices create ozone, a form of oxygen that has antiseptic properties and helps kill surface bacteria.
27. What safety rule should always be followed when using electrical devices on clients?
A. Use water for added conductivity
B. Remove metal jewelry from client
C. Apply product after turning machine on
D. Keep device on during removal
Correct Answer: B. Remove metal jewelry from client
Explanation: Clients should remove metal to prevent electric shock or interference during treatments, especially with galvanic or high-frequency currents.
28. In facial electrotherapy, what is the purpose of using a conductive gel?
A. Prevent skin redness
B. Increase voltage
C. Allow current to pass through the skin smoothly
D. Moisturize only
Correct Answer: C. Allow current to pass through the skin smoothly
Explanation: Conductive gel ensures that electrical current is evenly distributed across the skin, preventing irritation and improving treatment efficacy.
29. What’s the first step when preparing to use a microcurrent machine on a client?
A. Apply toner
B. Shave the skin
C. Sanitize the machine
D. Complete a thorough client consultation
Correct Answer: D. Complete a thorough client consultation
Explanation: Every electrical treatment should begin with a consultation to screen for contraindications like heart conditions or pregnancy.
30. Why must estheticians avoid using electrical machines on clients with pacemakers?
A. They interfere with skincare absorption
B. The machine may shock the esthetician
C. They can disrupt the pacemaker’s function
D. They prevent blood circulation
Correct Answer: C. They can disrupt the pacemaker’s function
Explanation: Electrical machines can interfere with pacemakers, posing serious health risks. This is a strict contraindication.
31. Which of the following best describes “direct current” (DC)?
A. Flows in two directions alternately
B. Is used for high-frequency treatments
C. Flows in one direction only
D. Does not require a power source
Correct Answer: C. Flows in one direction only
Explanation: Direct current (DC) flows in a single, consistent direction and is used in treatments like galvanic facials.
32. Alternating current (AC) differs from direct current because:
A. It is only used for waxing
B. It flows back and forth in cycles
C. It causes stronger muscle contractions
D. It cannot be used in esthetics
Correct Answer: B. It flows back and forth in cycles
Explanation: Alternating current (AC) reverses direction repeatedly. It is the type of current supplied to outlets and used in most spa equipment.
33. Which device converts alternating current into direct current?
A. Transformer
B. Electrode
C. Rectifier
D. Circuit breaker
Correct Answer: C. Rectifier
Explanation: A rectifier converts AC to DC, which is required for devices like galvanic machines that operate on direct current.
34. What type of electrode is typically used in high-frequency treatment?
A. Metal probe
B. Glass electrode
C. Cotton wand
D. Wooden applicator
Correct Answer: B. Glass electrode
Explanation: High-frequency treatments use glass electrodes filled with inert gas (argon or neon) to conduct current and generate therapeutic effects.
35. Why is the mushroom electrode used in high-frequency treatments?
A. To exfoliate dead skin
B. To create steam
C. To cover larger areas like the cheeks
D. To massage muscles
Correct Answer: C. To cover larger areas like the cheeks
Explanation: The mushroom electrode is broad and flat, ideal for treating large facial zones such as the forehead or cheeks.
36. What sensation should the client feel during a properly applied galvanic facial?
A. Strong vibration
B. Tingling or warmth
C. Electric shock
D. No sensation at all
Correct Answer: B. Tingling or warmth
Explanation: A mild tingling or warmth is normal with galvanic current. Sharp pain or strong shock is not and indicates incorrect usage.
37. What is a contraindication for using galvanic current?
A. Acne
B. Excessive oiliness
C. Pregnancy
D. Open pores
Correct Answer: C. Pregnancy
Explanation: Galvanic current should not be used on pregnant clients due to potential effects on the fetus, even though the risk is minimal.
38. What happens if the machine is turned on before the electrode touches the client’s skin in high-frequency treatment?
A. Sparks may occur
B. Treatment becomes more effective
C. Client sweats more
D. Machine resets
Correct Answer: A. Sparks may occur
Explanation: Always place the electrode on the skin before turning the machine on to prevent sparking and potential discomfort.
39. Which treatment uses positive and negative poles to produce chemical changes in the skin?
A. Aromatherapy
B. Galvanic
C. Ultrasonic
D. Microdermabrasion
Correct Answer: B. Galvanic
Explanation: Galvanic treatment uses electrical polarity to drive water-soluble products into the skin (iontophoresis) and to break down sebum (desincrustation).
40. What is the primary benefit of iontophoresis in facial treatments?
A. Exfoliation
B. Improved blood circulation
C. Product penetration
D. Hair removal
Correct Answer: C. Product penetration
Explanation: Iontophoresis helps active, water-soluble ingredients penetrate deeper into the skin, increasing their effectiveness.
41. What is the function of a circuit breaker in a spa or salon?
A. To enhance treatment intensity
B. To reduce product wastage
C. To shut off electrical flow during overload
D. To store electrical energy
Correct Answer: C. To shut off electrical flow during overload
Explanation: Circuit breakers automatically stop the flow of electricity when there’s an overload or short circuit, preventing electrical fires or equipment damage.
42. What is the purpose of grounding electrical equipment?
A. To enhance electrical strength
B. To prevent overheating
C. To provide a safe path for electricity to follow
D. To reduce treatment time
Correct Answer: C. To provide a safe path for electricity to follow
Explanation: Grounding directs excess electricity safely into the earth, protecting clients and technicians from shock.
43. What unit measures the force that pushes electrons through a conductor?
A. Watt
B. Ampere
C. Volt
D. Ohm
Correct Answer: C. Volt
Explanation: Voltage measures the pressure or force that drives the electrical current through a circuit.
44. Which unit measures the strength or amount of electric current?
A. Ampere
B. Volt
C. Ohm
D. Watt
Correct Answer: A. Ampere
Explanation: Amperes measure the quantity of electrical current flowing through a conductor.
45. What does an ohm measure?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Voltage
D. Power
Correct Answer: A. Resistance
Explanation: Ohms measure resistance—how much the electrical current is slowed as it travels through a conductor.
46. What is the definition of a watt in electrical terms?
A. Electrical resistance
B. Electrical flow
C. Measurement of electrical power
D. Measurement of grounding
Correct Answer: C. Measurement of electrical power
Explanation: Watts measure the rate at which energy is used. In salon equipment, this indicates how much energy a device consumes.
47. Which of the following is a safety precaution when using electrical equipment in the salon?
A. Keep wires exposed for airflow
B. Use wet hands for better conductivity
C. Check for frayed cords or damaged plugs
D. Plug in multiple machines to one outlet
Correct Answer: C. Check for frayed cords or damaged plugs
Explanation: Regularly inspecting cords and plugs prevents electrical accidents and ensures safe usage.
48. What is desincrustation?
A. The removal of dead skin with abrasives
B. A method of deep pore cleansing using galvanic current
C. A type of massage for relaxation
D. A waxing technique for sensitive skin
Correct Answer: B. A method of deep pore cleansing using galvanic current
Explanation: Desincrustation liquefies sebum in clogged pores, making it easier to extract impurities and clear acne-prone areas.
49. Which current is commonly used for desincrustation?
A. Alternating current (AC)
B. High-frequency current
C. Direct current (DC)
D. Tesla current
Correct Answer: C. Direct current (DC)
Explanation: Desincrustation uses direct current to soften and emulsify oil in the follicles, allowing for easy removal.
50. In Tesla high-frequency treatment, which gas gives off a violet light?
A. Argon
B. Neon
C. Helium
D. Nitrogen
Correct Answer: A. Argon
Explanation: Argon gas produces a violet or blue glow and is used for treating acne-prone or oily skin. Neon emits an orange-red glow for aging or dry skin.
51. What is the primary benefit of using Tesla high-frequency current in facials?
A. Slows metabolism
B. Produces a deep tan
C. Stimulates circulation and has antibacterial effects
D. Causes immediate muscle contractions
Correct Answer: C. Stimulates circulation and has antibacterial effects
Explanation: Tesla high-frequency current increases blood circulation, promotes healing, and kills bacteria—especially beneficial in acne treatments.
52. Which electrode is typically used during the indirect method of Tesla high-frequency treatment?
A. Glass vacuum electrode
B. Roller electrode
C. Metal clamp
D. Client holds the electrode while the esthetician massages
Correct Answer: D. Client holds the electrode while the esthetician massages
Explanation: In the indirect method, the client holds the electrode, and the esthetician performs the massage, stimulating tissue without direct current application to the face.
53. Which type of current is safest and most used in salons?
A. Alternating current (AC)
B. Direct current (DC)
C. Static current
D. Magnetic current
Correct Answer: A. Alternating current (AC)
Explanation: AC is commonly used in homes and salons due to its ability to travel long distances and operate safely in most salon appliances.
54. Which type of current should not be used on clients with metal implants or pacemakers?
A. Alternating current
B. Galvanic current
C. High-frequency current
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Clients with metal implants or pacemakers should avoid electrical treatments altogether to prevent interference with medical devices.
55. What precaution should be taken before using any electrical modality in a facial?
A. Disinfect the skin
B. Apply lotion
C. Analyze the client’s medical history
D. Steam the face for 10 minutes
Correct Answer: C. Analyze the client’s medical history
Explanation: Always review the client’s health status and contraindications to ensure safety with any electrical treatment.
56. What is the role of a rectifier in electrical equipment?
A. Amplifies current
B. Converts AC to DC
C. Stores electric charge
D. Decreases resistance
Correct Answer: B. Converts AC to DC
Explanation: Some esthetic devices require direct current; a rectifier changes AC from the power source to usable DC.
57. What part of an electric facial machine contacts the skin to transmit the current?
A. Adapter
B. Transformer
C. Electrode
D. Generator
Correct Answer: C. Electrode
Explanation: The electrode is the applicator that comes in contact with the skin and delivers the current during a service.
58. What kind of current does galvanic treatment use?
A. Alternating current
B. High-frequency current
C. Direct current
D. Magnetic current
Correct Answer: C. Direct current
Explanation: Galvanic treatments utilize direct current for iontophoresis and desincrustation procedures in facial therapy.
59. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of electrotherapy in facials?
A. Product penetration
B. Blood circulation stimulation
C. Hair removal
D. Germicidal effects
Correct Answer: C. Hair removal
Explanation: Electrotherapy facials do not remove hair; this requires electrolysis or laser treatments.
60. What should always be used with any electrical equipment to prevent injury?
A. Towels
B. Safety goggles
C. Ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
D. Rubber gloves
Correct Answer: C. Ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
Explanation: A GFCI is a safety device that shuts off power when it detects a ground fault, preventing electrical shock in wet salon environments.
Chapter 7: Chemistry for Cosmetologists
Core Topics: Matter, pH, ingredients, chemical reactions, product knowledge
~60 PSI-style Questions with Explanations
1. What is matter?
A. Anything that reflects light
B. Anything that has mass and takes up space
C. A form of chemical reaction
D. A mixture of gases
Correct Answer: B. Anything that has mass and takes up space
Explanation: Matter is the physical substance of all objects. It exists in solid, liquid, or gas states, all with mass and volume.
2. What are the three states of matter?
A. Liquid, gas, air
B. Water, oil, alcohol
C. Solid, liquid, gas
D. Metal, plastic, rubber
Correct Answer: C. Solid, liquid, gas
Explanation: All substances can exist in one or more of these three states depending on temperature and pressure.
3. What is the smallest chemical component of an element?
A. Ion
B. Proton
C. Atom
D. Neutron
Correct Answer: C. Atom
Explanation: An atom is the basic unit of a chemical element, making up all matter.
4. What are the basic types of chemical reactions relevant in cosmetology?
A. Thermal and electrical
B. Combustion and fermentation
C. Oxidation and reduction
D. Physical and mechanical
Correct Answer: C. Oxidation and reduction
Explanation: Oxidation (loss of electrons) and reduction (gain of electrons) are essential to chemical treatments like hair coloring and perms.
5. What is pH a measure of?
A. Strength of a solution
B. Temperature of a substance
C. Acidity or alkalinity of a solution
D. Density of a solution
Correct Answer: C. Acidity or alkalinity of a solution
Explanation: pH ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. Below 7 is acidic, above 7 is alkaline.
6. Which of the following is a pH-neutral substance?
A. Vinegar
B. Water
C. Shampoo
D. Bleach
Correct Answer: B. Water
Explanation: Pure water has a neutral pH of 7, making it neither acidic nor alkaline.
7. Which type of shampoo would most likely have an acidic pH?
A. Clarifying shampoo
B. Volumizing shampoo
C. pH-balanced shampoo
D. Color-safe shampoo
Correct Answer: D. Color-safe shampoo
Explanation: Color-safe shampoos are usually slightly acidic to help close the hair cuticle and preserve color.
8. What happens when an acid is mixed with an alkali in equal proportions?
A. The solution becomes toxic
B. A fire occurs
C. They neutralize each other
D. They turn into water
Correct Answer: C. They neutralize each other
Explanation: Acids and alkalis (bases) cancel each other out, producing water and a salt, creating a neutral pH.
9. Which chemical bond is responsible for the strength of hair?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Peptide bond
D. Disulfide bond
Correct Answer: D. Disulfide bond
Explanation: Disulfide bonds are the strongest and most important bonds in hair structure, altered by chemical processes like perms or relaxers.
10. What is the function of a surfactant in shampoo?
A. Adds scent
B. Prevents spoilage
C. Lathers and removes oil
D. Neutralizes chemicals
Correct Answer: C. Lathers and removes oil
Explanation: Surfactants reduce surface tension, allowing oils and dirt to be lifted and rinsed away.
11. What does the term “emulsion” mean in cosmetic chemistry?
A. A solution of equal pH levels
B. A permanent blend of solids
C. A mixture of two immiscible substances stabilized by an emulsifier
D. A form of gel suspension
Correct Answer: C. A mixture of two immiscible substances stabilized by an emulsifier
Explanation: Emulsions are commonly seen in creams and lotions, where oil and water are mixed with the help of an emulsifier to prevent separation.
12. What ingredient in a product helps keep oil and water mixed together?
A. Preservative
B. Surfactant
C. Emulsifier
D. Buffer
Correct Answer: C. Emulsifier
Explanation: Emulsifiers are used to bind oil and water together, creating stable products like creams and lotions.
13. What is the difference between a physical and a chemical change?
A. A physical change alters the substance’s identity
B. A chemical change can be reversed easily
C. A chemical change creates a new substance
D. A physical change produces light and heat
Correct Answer: C. A chemical change creates a new substance
Explanation: Chemical changes result in new substances (e.g., perm solution altering hair structure), while physical changes affect form without changing the substance itself (e.g., melting ice).
14. What is a common acid used in skincare products?
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Alpha hydroxy acid (AHA)
D. Acetic acid
Correct Answer: C. Alpha hydroxy acid (AHA)
Explanation: AHAs, such as glycolic acid, are used in exfoliation and anti-aging treatments.
15. Which of the following is an example of an alkaline substance used in cosmetology?
A. Neutralizer
B. Ammonia
C. Alcohol
D. Silicone
Correct Answer: B. Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is a strong alkaline ingredient commonly used in hair coloring to open the hair cuticle.
16. Why is understanding pH important for a cosmetologist?
A. To avoid electrical burns
B. To identify mineral content
C. To choose the correct products for different hair and skin types
D. To determine color tone
Correct Answer: C. To choose the correct products for different hair and skin types
Explanation: Knowing pH helps professionals select products that won’t damage hair or skin and will perform effectively.
17. What is a compound?
A. A substance made of one atom
B. A combination of elements chemically joined
C. A pure element
D. A form of bacteria
Correct Answer: B. A combination of elements chemically joined
Explanation: Compounds consist of two or more elements chemically bonded together, such as H2O (water).
18. What is SDS and why is it important in salons?
A. Salon Delivery System for product shipments
B. Sanitation Document Sheet for state inspectors
C. Safety Data Sheet that explains chemical hazards and handling
D. Standard Design Solution for labeling
Correct Answer: C. Safety Data Sheet that explains chemical hazards and handling
Explanation: SDS sheets are required by OSHA and detail every chemical’s safe use, risks, and emergency procedures.
19. Which type of chemical is used to raise the cuticle of the hair during chemical services?
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Neutral
D. Astringent
Correct Answer: A. Alkaline
Explanation: Alkaline substances swell and open the hair cuticle, allowing chemicals like color or perm solution to penetrate.
20. What term describes a substance that resists changes in pH?
A. Surfactant
B. Buffer
C. Catalyst
D. Emollient
Correct Answer: B. Buffer
Explanation: Buffers help maintain a consistent pH in products, ensuring stability and reducing irritation to hair and skin.
21. What is the primary function of surfactants in shampoo?
A. Stabilize emulsions
B. Provide fragrance
C. Allow oil and water to mix and cleanse
D. Preserve product shelf life
Correct Answer: C. Allow oil and water to mix and cleanse
Explanation: Surfactants lower the surface tension of water, allowing it to lift and rinse away dirt and oil from the hair and scalp.
22. Which type of molecule is attracted to water in a surfactant?
A. Hydrophobic tail
B. Hydrophilic head
C. Emulsifier bond
D. Alkaline chain
Correct Answer: B. Hydrophilic head
Explanation: Surfactants have two ends: the hydrophilic (water-loving) head and the hydrophobic (oil-loving) tail. This dual structure enables effective cleansing.
23. What do antioxidants do in skincare formulations?
A. Thicken the product
B. Increase exfoliation
C. Neutralize free radicals
D. Emulsify oil and water
Correct Answer: C. Neutralize free radicals
Explanation: Antioxidants like vitamin C protect the skin from environmental damage by stabilizing free radicals.
24. What is the pH range of human skin?
A. 2.0–3.0
B. 4.5–5.5
C. 6.5–7.5
D. 8.5–9.0
Correct Answer: B. 4.5–5.5
Explanation: Skin is naturally acidic to protect against bacteria and maintain healthy function. This is known as the “acid mantle.”
25. A chemical reaction that releases heat is known as:
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Catalytic
D. Polymerization
Correct Answer: B. Exothermic
Explanation: Exothermic reactions release energy in the form of heat. Some chemical hair services involve this type of reaction.
26. Which of the following is a common polymer found in hair styling products?
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)
C. Acetic acid
D. Titanium dioxide
Correct Answer: B. Polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)
Explanation: PVP is used in gels and sprays to provide hold by forming a film over the hair.
27. What does the term “volatile” mean when referring to a substance used in the salon?
A. Flammable and easily evaporated
B. Non-toxic and safe
C. Highly alkaline
D. Solid and odorless
Correct Answer: A. Flammable and easily evaporated
Explanation: Volatile substances evaporate quickly at room temperature and are often flammable—important to handle with care.
28. What type of bond is broken during chemical texture services like perms?
A. Peptide bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Disulfide bonds
D. Ionic bonds
Correct Answer: C. Disulfide bonds
Explanation: Disulfide bonds are strong chemical bonds in the hair that are permanently altered during perming and relaxing.
29. Which of the following terms best describes a suspension?
A. A stable mixture of two liquids
B. A mixture in which particles are evenly dissolved
C. A temporary mixture of undissolved particles that settle over time
D. A chemically bonded solution
Correct Answer: C. A temporary mixture of undissolved particles that settle over time
Explanation: Suspensions must be shaken before use because their particles are not permanently mixed.
30. Which safety practice is most important when working with chemical products in a salon?
A. Smelling each product before use
B. Wearing open-toed shoes for ventilation
C. Following manufacturer instructions and SDS guidance
D. Storing products near heat sources for quick access
Correct Answer: C. Following manufacturer instructions and SDS guidance
Explanation: Always read product labels and refer to SDS to ensure safe handling, storage, and emergency response in case of exposure.
31. What is the primary ingredient in most hair developers used with hair color?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Ammonia
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sulfur dioxide
Correct Answer: A. Hydrogen peroxide
Explanation: Hydrogen peroxide is the oxidizing agent that lifts the natural pigment in hair, allowing artificial color to deposit.
32. What is the role of ammonia in permanent hair color formulations?
A. Conditions the scalp
B. Acts as a preservative
C. Opens the hair cuticle for color penetration
D. Neutralizes hydrogen peroxide
Correct Answer: C. Opens the hair cuticle for color penetration
Explanation: Ammonia raises the pH of the hair, opening the cuticle so that color molecules can enter the cortex.
33. Which of the following is a benefit of using pH-balanced shampoo?
A. Removes oil aggressively
B. Makes hair more alkaline
C. Helps maintain the natural acid mantle of the hair and scalp
D. Encourages chemical reactions
Correct Answer: C. Helps maintain the natural acid mantle of the hair and scalp
Explanation: pH-balanced shampoos protect the hair’s outer layer and reduce damage by staying close to the hair’s natural pH.
34. What type of reaction occurs when hair bleach lightens natural hair pigment?
A. Physical reaction
B. Oxidation reaction
C. Sublimation
D. Fermentation
Correct Answer: B. Oxidation reaction
Explanation: Bleaching is an oxidation process where the hydrogen peroxide breaks down melanin, the natural pigment in hair.
35. Which of the following substances is a reducing agent used in permanent waving solutions?
A. Thioglycolic acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium chloride
D. Ammonium hydroxide
Correct Answer: A. Thioglycolic acid
Explanation: Thioglycolic acid breaks the disulfide bonds in the hair’s structure to allow it to be reshaped.
36. A solution with a pH of 10 is considered:
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Oxidized
Correct Answer: B. Alkaline
Explanation: A pH above 7 is alkaline. Hair relaxers and some perms operate at this level to soften and swell the hair.
37. Which of the following substances is considered an acid?
A. Ammonium thioglycolate
B. Vinegar (acetic acid)
C. Baking soda
D. Sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: B. Vinegar (acetic acid)
Explanation: Vinegar is a mild acid used in cosmetic formulations to balance pH and close the cuticle.
38. Why should certain chemical products not be mixed unless directed by the manufacturer?
A. They may lose color
B. The texture may change
C. Hazardous chemical reactions may occur
D. They will become more expensive
Correct Answer: C. Hazardous chemical reactions may occur
Explanation: Mixing incompatible chemicals can result in toxic fumes, burns, or fire—only mix as per instructions and SDS.
39. What is the molecular makeup of water, a universal solvent in cosmetology?
A. H2O
B. HO2
C. CO2
D. H3O
Correct Answer: A. H2O
Explanation: Water is composed of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom—essential in dissolving and mixing many cosmetic ingredients.
40. What are emulsions commonly used for in the salon setting?
A. To clean surfaces
B. To color hair
C. To blend oil and water into creams and lotions
D. To neutralize hair color
Correct Answer: C. To blend oil and water into creams and lotions
Explanation: Emulsions are mixtures of oil and water stabilized by emulsifiers, used in conditioners, creams, and lotions.
41. What is the function of an alkaline substance in chemical services?
A. It hardens the hair shaft
B. It causes the hair cuticle to contract
C. It swells the hair shaft and opens the cuticle
D. It conditions the scalp
Correct Answer: C. It swells the hair shaft and opens the cuticle
Explanation: Alkaline substances raise the pH level and open the cuticle, allowing chemical solutions to penetrate the hair more effectively.
42. What is an example of a chemical change in cosmetology?
A. Cutting hair
B. Braiding hair
C. Curling hair with an iron
D. Lightening hair with bleach
Correct Answer: D. Lightening hair with bleach
Explanation: Bleaching changes the hair’s pigment through an oxidation chemical process, making it a true chemical change.
43. Which ingredient in permanent wave solutions softens and breaks disulfide bonds in the hair?
A. Ammonia
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium chloride
D. Ammonium thioglycolate
Correct Answer: D. Ammonium thioglycolate
Explanation: This reducing agent is responsible for breaking the strong disulfide bonds, allowing the hair to be reshaped into curls or waves.
44. What term describes a substance that dissolves another substance to form a solution?
A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Emulsifier
D. Catalyst
Correct Answer: A. Solvent
Explanation: In a solution, the solvent is the component (like water) that dissolves another component, such as salt or sugar.
45. Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A. Vinegar
B. Mayonnaise
C. Calamine lotion
D. Hair gel
Correct Answer: C. Calamine lotion
Explanation: Suspensions are mixtures in which particles settle over time if left undisturbed—calamine lotion is a common example in skincare.
46. What is a common pH range of permanent hair color products?
A. 2.5–3.5
B. 4.5–5.5
C. 7.0–8.0
D. 9.0–11.0
Correct Answer: D. 9.0–11.0
Explanation: Most permanent hair colors are alkaline (pH 9–11), allowing them to open the cuticle and deposit color into the cortex.
47. Which chemical ingredient is most commonly used in hair relaxers?
A. Thioglycolic acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Citric acid
Correct Answer: C. Sodium hydroxide
Explanation: Sodium hydroxide, a strong alkaline compound, is the active ingredient in lye-based relaxers used to straighten very curly hair.
48. What does SDS stand for in the context of salon chemistry?
A. Solution Distribution Sheet
B. Safety Disinfectant Standard
C. Safety Data Sheet
D. Scientific Disposal Statement
Correct Answer: C. Safety Data Sheet
Explanation: SDS sheets provide essential safety information about chemicals—required by OSHA in all salons to promote safe handling.
49. What is the main role of an emulsifier in a cream product?
A. To break down oil
B. To dissolve water
C. To bind oil and water together
D. To bleach the mixture
Correct Answer: C. To bind oil and water together
Explanation: Emulsifiers allow oil and water to mix into a stable product, like lotion or conditioner.
50. What happens if incompatible chemicals are mixed in the salon?
A. They become more effective
B. Nothing significant
C. They may cause hazardous reactions, including fumes and burns
D. They enhance shine
Correct Answer: C. They may cause hazardous reactions, including fumes and burns
Explanation: Always follow manufacturer guidelines. Mixing incompatible substances can lead to serious chemical reactions, health hazards, and legal risks.
51. What is the main difference between organic and inorganic chemistry?
A. Organic chemistry only applies to food
B. Inorganic chemistry deals only with air
C. Organic chemistry studies compounds with carbon; inorganic does not
D. Inorganic chemistry is not used in cosmetology
Correct Answer: C. Organic chemistry studies compounds with carbon; inorganic does not
Explanation: Organic chemistry involves carbon-based substances (such as alcohols, oils, plastics), which are heavily used in beauty products. Inorganic chemistry involves elements like metals, minerals, and water.
52. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of a substance?
A. Color
B. Boiling point
C. Odor
D. Ability to oxidize
Correct Answer: D. Ability to oxidize
Explanation: Oxidation is a chemical property. Physical properties can be observed without changing the substance’s chemical identity.
53. What term describes the reaction of a substance combining with oxygen to produce heat and light?
A. Neutralization
B. Reduction
C. Combustion
D. Emulsification
Correct Answer: C. Combustion
Explanation: Combustion is a chemical reaction between a substance and oxygen that releases energy in the form of heat and light (e.g., fire).
54. Which type of shampoo is best for removing product buildup from the hair?
A. Acid-balanced shampoo
B. Clarifying shampoo
C. Conditioning shampoo
D. Medicated shampoo
Correct Answer: B. Clarifying shampoo
Explanation: Clarifying shampoos contain stronger cleansing agents to remove residue from styling products, minerals, and chlorine.
55. What is the result of neutralizing an acid with a base?
A. It becomes more acidic
B. It forms water and a salt
C. It turns into alcohol
D. It evaporates
Correct Answer: B. It forms water and a salt
Explanation: A neutralization reaction between an acid and a base produces water and a salt, balancing the pH toward neutral.
56. What type of chemical bond holds amino acids together in the hair?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Salt bond
C. Disulfide bond
D. Peptide bond
Correct Answer: D. Peptide bond
Explanation: Peptide bonds (also called end bonds) link amino acids together to form the keratin protein chain in hair.
57. What is the pH of a solution that is neutral?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 7
D. 14
Correct Answer: C. 7
Explanation: On the pH scale (0 to 14), a value of 7 is neutral—neither acidic nor alkaline. Water is a common example.
58. Which term refers to a change in the form of a substance without forming a new substance?
A. Chemical change
B. Organic breakdown
C. Physical change
D. Ionization
Correct Answer: C. Physical change
Explanation: A physical change alters the form or appearance but not the chemical composition—like melting wax or cutting hair.
59. When mixing chemicals in the salon, what should always be done first?
A. Mix without gloves to feel the texture
B. Add water to the chemical
C. Read the manufacturer’s instructions
D. Shake all bottles thoroughly
Correct Answer: C. Read the manufacturer’s instructions
Explanation: Always read the instructions and follow safety protocols before mixing or applying any salon chemical product.
60. What is the function of hydrogen peroxide in hair coloring?
A. It darkens hair pigment
B. It softens the scalp
C. It acts as a developer by releasing oxygen
D. It balances pH
Correct Answer: C. It acts as a developer by releasing oxygen
Explanation: Hydrogen peroxide is a developer that provides the oxygen needed to activate hair color and lighten natural pigment through oxidation.
Chapter 8: Electricity & Light Therapy
Core Topics: Electrical Theory, Salon Equipment, Electrotherapy Modalities, Light Therapy (UV, LED), Safety & Precautions
Question 1:
What type of current is used in most salon tools and household appliances?
A. Direct Current (DC)
B. Alternating Current (AC)
C. Electromagnetic Current (EMC)
D. Static Current (SC)
Correct Answer: B. Alternating Current (AC)
Explanation: Alternating Current flows in two directions and is the standard for salon tools and wall outlets in the U.S., whereas Direct Current flows in one direction and is common in batteries.
Question 2:
Which unit measures the pressure or force that pushes the flow of electrons through a conductor?
A. Watt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Volt
Correct Answer: D. Volt
Explanation: A volt measures electrical pressure, which pushes electrons through a circuit. More voltage = stronger flow potential.
Question 3:
What does an ampere measure in an electrical circuit?
A. Resistance
B. Power usage
C. Number of watts
D. Strength of the current
Correct Answer: D. Strength of the current
Explanation: Amperes measure how much electric current is flowing. Higher amperage means more current is being carried through the wires.
Question 4:
Which of the following conducts electricity?
A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Copper
D. Rubber
Correct Answer: C. Copper
Explanation: Copper is one of the best conductors of electricity and is used in most salon tools and power cords.
Question 5:
What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical device?
A. To increase voltage
B. To serve as a backup battery
C. To prevent overloading by breaking the circuit
D. To amplify the current
Correct Answer: C. To prevent overloading by breaking the circuit
Explanation: Fuses are safety devices designed to melt and open the circuit when the current is too high, preventing fires or equipment damage.
Question 6:
Which electrotherapy modality is used to stimulate blood flow and lymphatic drainage?
A. Tesla High Frequency
B. Galvanic Current
C. Microcurrent
D. Faradic
Correct Answer: C. Microcurrent
Explanation: Microcurrent is a low-level electrical current that stimulates facial muscles, boosts circulation, and supports skin rejuvenation.
Question 7:
Which current is used for disincrustation and iontophoresis?
A. High Frequency
B. Alternating Current
C. Galvanic Current
D. Static Electricity
Correct Answer: C. Galvanic Current
Explanation: Galvanic current is a continuous DC that can perform disincrustation (deep pore cleansing) and iontophoresis (product penetration).
Question 8:
Which safety device shuts off electricity instantly when a problem is detected?
A. Transformer
B. Circuit breaker
C. Static eliminator
D. Insulator
Correct Answer: B. Circuit breaker
Explanation: A circuit breaker is a reusable safety switch that automatically shuts off electricity in case of overload or short circuit.
Question 9:
Which of the following is considered a modality of light therapy?
A. Galvanic
B. LED
C. Microcurrent
D. Oscillation
Correct Answer: B. LED
Explanation: Light Emitting Diode (LED) is a safe and effective light therapy treatment for skin conditions like acne, aging, and inflammation.
Question 10:
What color of LED light is most effective for reducing acne?
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Green
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: A. Blue
Explanation: Blue LED light targets and kills acne-causing bacteria, making it ideal for treating oily, acne-prone skin.
Question 11:
Which color of LED light is best known for stimulating collagen production and reducing fine lines?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Red
Correct Answer: D. Red
Explanation: Red light penetrates deeper into the skin and stimulates collagen and elastin, making it beneficial for anti-aging treatments.
Question 12:
What precaution should be taken before starting any electrotherapy treatment?
A. Shave the client’s head
B. Soak the client’s face in warm water
C. Perform a thorough skin analysis and health consultation
D. Ensure the client is wearing sunscreen
Correct Answer: C. Perform a thorough skin analysis and health consultation
Explanation: Before any treatment, especially those involving electricity, it’s essential to evaluate the client’s skin condition, medical history, and contraindications (like pregnancy or pacemakers).
Question 13:
What does the term “contraindication” refer to in electrotherapy?
A. The required charge setting
B. An ingredient in skincare
C. A condition that makes treatment inappropriate
D. A desired treatment outcome
Correct Answer: C. A condition that makes treatment inappropriate
Explanation: A contraindication is any medical or physical condition (like epilepsy or heart conditions) that signals a treatment should not be performed.
Question 14:
Which device converts high-voltage electricity into low-voltage current suitable for skin treatments?
A. Rectifier
B. Transformer
C. Battery
D. Oscillator
Correct Answer: B. Transformer
Explanation: A transformer changes the voltage of electricity, often lowering it so the current is safe for salon and spa use.
Question 15:
What should you do if your client experiences a burning sensation during a galvanic treatment?
A. Continue the treatment at a lower setting
B. Stop the treatment immediately
C. Apply more product to buffer the sensation
D. Add water to the electrode
Correct Answer: B. Stop the treatment immediately
Explanation: Burning indicates the current may be too strong or improperly applied. Always stop treatment and reassess.
Question 16:
Why is it important to use a water-based conducting gel during galvanic treatments?
A. It lubricates the electrode
B. It helps electricity travel evenly and safely across the skin
C. It increases voltage
D. It cleanses the pores automatically
Correct Answer: B. It helps electricity travel evenly and safely across the skin
Explanation: Conductive gel ensures even distribution of current and protects the skin from irritation or burns.
Question 17:
Which safety rule should always be followed when using electrical equipment?
A. Use metal jewelry to ground the current
B. Always use the equipment near water for best results
C. Inspect cords and plugs regularly for damage
D. Plug multiple devices into one outlet
Correct Answer: C. Inspect cords and plugs regularly for damage
Explanation: Frayed wires and broken plugs can cause electric shock or fire. Regular inspections help ensure safety.
Question 18:
Which device produces a thermal or heat effect used in high-frequency treatments?
A. UV lamp
B. Tesla coil
C. Incandescent bulb
D. Microdermabrasion machine
Correct Answer: B. Tesla coil
Explanation: Tesla high-frequency current uses a glass electrode and produces heat to stimulate the skin and kill bacteria.
Question 19:
Which type of current is used in Tesla high-frequency machines?
A. Direct Current (DC)
B. Static Current
C. Alternating Current (AC)
D. Oscillating Current
Correct Answer: D. Oscillating Current
Explanation: Tesla high-frequency machines use oscillating high-voltage, low-amperage currents that are safe and beneficial for skin stimulation and acne.
Question 20:
Which safety measure is essential when applying light therapy directly to the eyes?
A. Keep the lights off
B. Apply petroleum jelly to the eyelids
C. Use damp cotton rounds only
D. Cover the eyes with goggles or eye pads
Correct Answer: D. Cover the eyes with goggles or eye pads
Explanation: Light therapy can damage the eyes if protective coverings aren’t used, especially with UV or LED exposure.
Question 21:
Which of the following clients should not receive a microcurrent treatment?
A. A client with mild wrinkles
B. A client with acne
C. A client with a pacemaker
D. A client with oily skin
Correct Answer: C. A client with a pacemaker
Explanation: Microcurrent treatments are contraindicated for clients with pacemakers or metal implants due to the electrical stimulation, which could interfere with medical devices.
Question 22:
What is the primary benefit of microcurrent therapy in skincare?
A. Dehydration of the skin
B. Muscle stimulation for toning
C. Excessive exfoliation
D. Reduction of body fat
Correct Answer: B. Muscle stimulation for toning
Explanation: Microcurrent delivers low-level electrical impulses that mimic the body’s natural current, toning facial muscles and improving firmness and skin elasticity.
Question 23:
What is iontophoresis used for in esthetics?
A. Exfoliation using crystals
B. Extraction of blackheads
C. Infusing water-soluble products into the skin
D. Removing unwanted hair
Correct Answer: C. Infusing water-soluble products into the skin
Explanation: Iontophoresis uses galvanic current to deliver water-soluble ingredients deep into the skin, improving product absorption.
Question 24:
Which form of light is most commonly used to treat acne?
A. Red light
B. Yellow light
C. Blue light
D. Green light
Correct Answer: C. Blue light
Explanation: Blue LED light is effective at killing acne-causing bacteria (Propionibacterium acnes) and reducing inflammation, making it ideal for acne-prone skin.
Question 25:
What is a direct application in high-frequency treatment?
A. The client holds the electrode
B. The esthetician uses gliding motion directly on the client’s skin
C. The electrode is placed on the floor
D. The client applies the current with their own hand
Correct Answer: B. The esthetician uses gliding motion directly on the client’s skin
Explanation: In direct application, the esthetician applies the electrode directly to the client’s skin to produce germicidal and stimulating effects.
Question 26:
What is the purpose of the ozone effect in high-frequency treatments?
A. To moisturize dry skin
B. To destroy bacteria and oxygenate the skin
C. To exfoliate dead skin cells
D. To change skin color
Correct Answer: B. To destroy bacteria and oxygenate the skin
Explanation: Ozone is produced when high-frequency current passes through the electrode, creating a germicidal effect and stimulating blood circulation.
Question 27:
How should you clean a glass high-frequency electrode after use?
A. Immerse in boiling water
B. Wipe with dry tissue
C. Clean with EPA-registered disinfectant and store safely
D. Place under UV lamp for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C. Clean with EPA-registered disinfectant and store safely
Explanation: Always clean and disinfect electrodes with appropriate disinfectants after each use to maintain sanitation and client safety.
Question 28:
Which safety protocol is required before starting any electrical modality treatment?
A. Apply essential oils
B. Ask client to remove metal jewelry
C. Wear gloves
D. Dim the room lights
Correct Answer: B. Ask client to remove metal jewelry
Explanation: Metal can conduct electricity, posing a safety hazard during electrical treatments, so all jewelry should be removed.
Question 29:
Why is it important to adjust machine intensity gradually when starting a treatment?
A. To test the battery life
B. To increase therapist comfort
C. To prevent shocking or discomfort to the client
D. To save time
Correct Answer: C. To prevent shocking or discomfort to the client
Explanation: Sudden changes in intensity can startle or harm the client. Slow adjustment ensures comfort and safety.
Question 30:
A client reports feeling numbness during an electrotherapy facial. What should the esthetician do?
A. Turn the machine to the highest setting
B. Apply more product
C. Stop the service immediately and assess the situation
D. Ignore the complaint
Correct Answer: C. Stop the service immediately and assess the situation
Explanation: Numbness or tingling can indicate a sensitivity, over-stimulation, or improper application. Always pause and evaluate the client’s comfort and safety.
Question 31:
What is galvanic current primarily used for in esthetics?
A. Muscle contraction
B. Hair removal
C. Deep product penetration and desincrustation
D. Creating UV rays for tanning
Correct Answer: C. Deep product penetration and desincrustation
Explanation: Galvanic current uses direct current to perform two functions: iontophoresis (infusion of water-soluble products) and desincrustation (softening of sebum and debris in follicles).
Question 32:
What is desincrustation ideal for treating?
A. Dehydrated skin
B. Sagging skin
C. Oily and congested skin
D. Sensitive skin
Correct Answer: C. Oily and congested skin
Explanation: Desincrustation helps to emulsify hardened sebum and debris inside the pores, making it ideal for oily or acne-prone skin.
Question 33:
What precaution must an esthetician take when using Tesla high-frequency on a client with rosacea?
A. Use low-frequency vibration
B. Avoid the treatment altogether
C. Increase intensity for deeper effect
D. Apply pressure with the electrode
Correct Answer: B. Avoid the treatment altogether
Explanation: High-frequency treatments may exacerbate rosacea or sensitive skin conditions due to their stimulating and warming effects.
Question 34:
Which electrode type is commonly used for scalp and facial high-frequency treatments?
A. Glass mushroom electrode
B. Ball electrode
C. Comb electrode
D. Spatula electrode
Correct Answer: A. Glass mushroom electrode
Explanation: The mushroom electrode is designed to treat large areas such as the cheeks or forehead and is the most common in high-frequency facials.
Question 35:
Which color of LED light is best known to increase circulation and stimulate collagen?
A. Green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: B. Red
Explanation: Red LED light is known to penetrate the dermis and increase cellular repair, promote collagen production, and reduce wrinkles.
Question 36:
Which type of current is used in microcurrent facial therapy?
A. High-frequency alternating current
B. Ultraviolet current
C. Low-level direct current
D. Intermittent high-voltage current
Correct Answer: C. Low-level direct current
Explanation: Microcurrent delivers very low levels of direct current that mimic the body’s natural electrical impulses, stimulating facial muscles and tissues.
Question 37:
Before using any electrical modality, what is the first step in ensuring client safety?
A. Disinfecting the room
B. Reviewing the client’s health history and contraindications
C. Turning off the lights
D. Applying toner
Correct Answer: B. Reviewing the client’s health history and contraindications
Explanation: Always perform a thorough consultation and health review to avoid using contraindicated modalities that may harm the client.
Question 38:
What is the role of negative polarity in galvanic current during desincrustation?
A. Softens and emulsifies sebum
B. Stimulates collagen
C. Firms the skin
D. Closes the pores
Correct Answer: A. Softens and emulsifies sebum
Explanation: Negative polarity produces an alkaline reaction that helps to break down and soften sebum and debris in the follicle, aiding in extractions.
Question 39:
Which modality is often used to calm inflammation and soothe sensitive skin?
A. High-frequency
B. Galvanic positive pole (iontophoresis)
C. Blue LED light
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation: The positive pole of galvanic current has soothing effects, while blue LED light can reduce inflammation and bacteria, both suitable for calming skin.
Question 40:
How long should most LED light therapy treatments last per session for facial skin?
A. 1–2 minutes
B. 5–20 minutes
C. 45–60 minutes
D. 90 minutes
Correct Answer: B. 5–20 minutes
Explanation: LED light treatments typically last between 5 to 20 minutes depending on the skin’s condition and the desired result. Excessive exposure is unnecessary and not recommended.
Question 41:
Which type of current is used during iontophoresis to infuse water-soluble products into the skin?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Pulsed current
D. Ultraviolet current
Correct Answer: B. Direct current
Explanation: Iontophoresis uses a steady, direct current to facilitate the penetration of active ingredients deep into the skin layers.
Question 42:
What is the main benefit of blue LED light therapy in esthetics?
A. Stimulates collagen
B. Reduces inflammation
C. Kills acne-causing bacteria
D. Reduces hyperpigmentation
Correct Answer: C. Kills acne-causing bacteria
Explanation: Blue LED light penetrates the upper layers of the skin and effectively destroys P. acnes bacteria, a leading cause of acne.
Question 43:
What is the contraindication for using microcurrent facial devices?
A. Oily skin
B. Fine lines
C. Pacemakers or metal implants
D. Large pores
Correct Answer: C. Pacemakers or metal implants
Explanation: Clients with pacemakers, metal implants, or epilepsy should not receive microcurrent treatments due to potential interference or safety risks.
Question 44:
Which of the following is a benefit of high-frequency treatment?
A. Increased inflammation
B. Stimulates blood circulation and lymphatic flow
C. Reduces elastin in the skin
D. Increases melanin production
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates blood circulation and lymphatic flow
Explanation: High-frequency helps increase circulation, encourages cell renewal, and can aid in healing post-extraction.
Question 45:
When using the direct method of high-frequency, where is the electrode placed?
A. Under the chin
B. Inserted into the skin
C. In the client’s hand
D. Directly on the skin’s surface
Correct Answer: D. Directly on the skin’s surface
Explanation: In the direct method, the electrode is applied to the skin, delivering energy directly to the treatment area.
Question 46:
When should the indirect high-frequency method be used?
A. On acne-prone skin
B. To stimulate dry, aging skin
C. For hyperpigmentation
D. For deep extractions
Correct Answer: B. To stimulate dry, aging skin
Explanation: Indirect high-frequency is used for its gentle stimulation. The client holds the electrode while the esthetician massages, improving circulation and relaxation.
Question 47:
Which light color in LED therapy is commonly used to reduce hyperpigmentation and brighten the skin?
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Red
D. Violet
Correct Answer: B. Green
Explanation: Green LED targets melanin production, helping to fade pigmentation, reduce redness, and even out skin tone.
Question 48:
Why is it important to clean electrodes after each client?
A. To maintain product effectiveness
B. To remove oil
C. To prevent cross-contamination and infection
D. To improve electrode color
Correct Answer: C. To prevent cross-contamination and infection
Explanation: Cleaning and disinfecting all tools and electrodes ensure client safety and meet sanitation standards required by state boards.
Question 49:
What is the primary concern when using electrical modalities on clients with diabetes?
A. Increased pigmentation
B. Risk of burns or slow healing
C. Hair growth stimulation
D. Excess collagen production
Correct Answer: B. Risk of burns or slow healing
Explanation: Diabetic clients may have compromised nerve sensitivity and slower wound healing, increasing the risk for burns or adverse reactions.
Question 50:
What should an esthetician always do before using any machine on a client for the first time?
A. Apply moisturizer
B. Plug in the machine
C. Perform a patch test and client consultation
D. Sanitize their own face
Correct Answer: C. Perform a patch test and client consultation
Explanation: To ensure safety, a patch test and detailed consultation are essential to identify any allergies, contraindications, or sensitivities before proceeding with a modality.
Question 51:
What is the function of a Wood’s lamp in a facial treatment?
A. Exfoliate the skin
B. Analyze skin conditions using ultraviolet light
C. Treat acne with blue light
D. Disinfect skin
Correct Answer: B. Analyze skin conditions using ultraviolet light
Explanation: A Wood’s lamp uses a black light to detect skin irregularities such as dehydration, oiliness, hyperpigmentation, or bacteria.
Question 52:
Which modality delivers low levels of electricity to mimic the body’s natural current and stimulate facial muscles?
A. Galvanic
B. Tesla
C. LED
D. Microcurrent
Correct Answer: D. Microcurrent
Explanation: Microcurrent therapy gently stimulates facial muscles and tissues, improving tone and firmness with minimal sensation.
Question 53:
Which current is used during desincrustation to soften and emulsify sebum and comedones?
A. Galvanic current
B. Tesla high-frequency
C. Microcurrent
D. LED light therapy
Correct Answer: A. Galvanic current
Explanation: In desincrustation, negative galvanic current helps liquefy oil and debris, making it easier to extract.
Question 54:
The cathode in a galvanic treatment has what effect on the skin?
A. Acidic, hardening
B. Alkaline, softening
C. Pigment-increasing
D. Cooling
Correct Answer: B. Alkaline, softening
Explanation: The cathode is negatively charged and causes an alkaline reaction that softens tissues and opens pores.
Question 55:
Which light therapy color is best known for stimulating collagen and increasing circulation?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
Correct Answer: C. Red
Explanation: Red LED light penetrates more deeply, promoting cellular repair and collagen production.
Question 56:
Which skin condition would most benefit from blue LED light therapy?
A. Dehydrated skin
B. Hyperpigmentation
C. Active acne
D. Fine lines
Correct Answer: C. Active acne
Explanation: Blue light has antibacterial properties that target P. acnes, helping to reduce breakouts and inflammation.
Question 57:
What should you do immediately after using an electrode on a client?
A. Rinse it with warm water
B. Plug it into another outlet
C. Wipe it with alcohol or EPA-registered disinfectant
D. Let the next client use it
Correct Answer: C. Wipe it with alcohol or EPA-registered disinfectant
Explanation: All reusable electrodes must be disinfected immediately after use to meet safety standards and prevent cross-contamination.
Question 58:
What is the primary safety rule when operating any electrical facial device?
A. Plug in multiple devices together
B. Use near a sink
C. Always read the manufacturer’s instructions and check for contraindications
D. Keep the device turned on between clients
Correct Answer: C. Always read the manufacturer’s instructions and check for contraindications
Explanation: Understanding how a machine works and who it’s safe for protects both the esthetician and the client.
Question 59:
Which machine function infuses water-soluble solutions deep into the skin?
A. Spray diffuser
B. Desincrustation
C. Iontophoresis
D. Rotary brush
Correct Answer: C. Iontophoresis
Explanation: Iontophoresis uses galvanic current to push active ingredients into the deeper layers of the skin for enhanced results.
Question 60:
Why is it important to understand electricity as an esthetician?
A. To choose the best shampoo
B. To understand how enzymes work
C. To use electrical modalities safely and effectively
D. To create your own skincare products
Correct Answer: C. To use electrical modalities safely and effectively
Explanation: A foundational understanding of electricity ensures estheticians operate equipment properly, minimize risks, and provide effective treatments.
Chapter 9: Hair Removal Techniques and Theory
Core Concepts: Types of hair, hair growth cycles, temporary and permanent hair removal methods (waxing, tweezing, sugaring, threading, electrolysis, laser), client safety, and contraindications.
~60 Questions + Explanations
Question 1:
What is the active growing stage of hair called?
A. Catagen
B. Telogen
C. Anagen
D. Exogen
Correct Answer: C. Anagen
Explanation: The anagen phase is the longest and most active stage of hair growth. It is the best stage for effective hair removal, especially with permanent methods like laser or electrolysis.
Question 2:
Which hair removal method involves pulling the hair from the follicle using a twisted thread?
A. Waxing
B. Sugaring
C. Threading
D. Shaving
Correct Answer: C. Threading
Explanation: Threading is a traditional technique that uses a twisted cotton thread to catch and remove hairs from the follicle, typically used on facial areas.
Question 3:
Electrolysis removes hair by:
A. Using wax to pull out hair
B. Using a rotating blade
C. Destroying the hair follicle with electric current
D. Burning off the hair shaft
Correct Answer: C. Destroying the hair follicle with electric current
Explanation: Electrolysis involves inserting a fine probe into the hair follicle and applying electric current to destroy the follicle and prevent regrowth.
Question 4:
Which method of hair removal uses a sugar paste applied at body temperature?
A. Waxing
B. Laser
C. Threading
D. Sugaring
Correct Answer: D. Sugaring
Explanation: Sugaring uses a natural paste made of sugar, lemon, and water. It is less irritating than waxing and effective for sensitive skin.
Question 5:
In waxing, how should the wax be applied and removed?
A. Applied against hair growth, removed with hair growth
B. Applied and removed against hair growth
C. Applied with hair growth, removed against it
D. Applied and removed with hair growth
Correct Answer: C. Applied with hair growth, removed against it
Explanation: To minimize discomfort and breakage, wax is applied in the direction of hair growth and removed quickly in the opposite direction.
Question 6:
Laser hair removal targets which part of the hair?
A. Cuticle
B. Sebaceous gland
C. Hair shaft
D. Melanin in the follicle
Correct Answer: D. Melanin in the follicle
Explanation: Laser devices target melanin (pigment) in the hair follicle, making it most effective on dark, coarse hair.
Question 7:
Which of the following skin conditions is a contraindication for waxing?
A. Oily skin
B. Sunburn
C. Dehydrated skin
D. Mild acne
Correct Answer: B. Sunburn
Explanation: Waxing should never be performed over sunburned, inflamed, or broken skin, as it can lead to severe irritation or damage.
Question 8:
Which method of hair removal is most likely to result in permanent reduction?
A. Tweezing
B. Waxing
C. Laser
D. Shaving
Correct Answer: C. Laser
Explanation: Laser hair removal may lead to permanent hair reduction after several sessions, though results vary based on skin and hair type.
Question 9:
What’s the main purpose of using a powder before waxing?
A. To exfoliate
B. To lubricate the skin
C. To absorb moisture and protect the skin
D. To numb the area
Correct Answer: C. To absorb moisture and protect the skin
Explanation: Powder helps create a barrier between wax and skin, reducing the chance of skin damage and enhancing hair grip.
Question 10:
Which tool is used in tweezing?
A. Cotton thread
B. Wooden spatula
C. Strip wax
D. Forceps or tweezers
Correct Answer: D. Forceps or tweezers
Explanation: Tweezing is the manual removal of hair with tweezers, best for small areas like eyebrows.
Question 11:
How often is waxing typically recommended for long-term results?
A. Every week
B. Every 2–4 weeks
C. Every 6–8 weeks
D. Once every 3 months
Correct Answer: B. Every 2–4 weeks
Explanation: Most clients see regrowth within 2–4 weeks, which is ideal timing for effective and consistent waxing results, depending on their hair growth cycle.
Question 12:
Which of the following best describes vellus hair?
A. Thick, coarse, pigmented hair
B. Long, dark hair found on the scalp
C. Fine, soft, unpigmented hair
D. Hair found only in the underarm area
Correct Answer: C. Fine, soft, unpigmented hair
Explanation: Vellus hair is short, fine, and typically colorless. It covers most of the body and is not usually removed unless specifically requested.
Question 13:
Which FDA-approved method is recognized as a permanent hair removal technique?
A. Waxing
B. Threading
C. Electrolysis
D. Laser
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis is the only method approved by the FDA for permanent hair removal, as it destroys the hair follicle using electricity.
Question 14:
A client taking Accutane (Isotretinoin) should:
A. Wax as usual
B. Only use soft wax
C. Avoid all waxing services
D. Shave before waxing
Correct Answer: C. Avoid all waxing services
Explanation: Accutane thins the skin significantly, increasing the risk of tearing during waxing. Waxing is contraindicated for clients currently using or recently discontinued from Accutane.
Question 15:
Before performing a waxing service, a patch test should be done to:
A. See how fast hair grows back
B. Determine the level of pain tolerance
C. Check for allergic reactions or skin sensitivity
D. Soften the skin before waxing
Correct Answer: C. Check for allergic reactions or skin sensitivity
Explanation: A patch test helps identify any adverse reactions to wax or pre/post-care products, ensuring the service is safe for the client.
Question 16:
In sugaring, how is the sugar paste typically removed from the skin?
A. Pulled off with a strip
B. Rinsed off with warm water
C. Flicked off with the hand
D. Scraped with a metal spatula
Correct Answer: C. Flicked off with the hand
Explanation: Traditional sugaring involves molding the paste onto the skin and quickly flicking it off with the hand in the direction of hair growth.
Question 17:
Which hair growth phase is the best time for permanent hair removal methods?
A. Catagen
B. Telogen
C. Anagen
D. Transition
Correct Answer: C. Anagen
Explanation: The anagen phase is when hair is actively growing and still attached to the follicle, making it the most effective time for permanent removal techniques.
Question 18:
Which PPE (personal protective equipment) is most important during waxing services?
A. Apron and goggles
B. Gloves
C. Face mask
D. Closed-toed shoes
Correct Answer: B. Gloves
Explanation: Wearing gloves during waxing protects both the client and esthetician from bloodborne pathogens and cross-contamination.
Question 19:
What should always be done after a waxing procedure?
A. Apply cold wax
B. Apply a pre-depilatory lotion
C. Use soothing lotion or antiseptic
D. Rub alcohol to dry the skin
Correct Answer: C. Use soothing lotion or antiseptic
Explanation: Post-wax care involves calming the skin with soothing agents to reduce irritation, redness, and the risk of infection.
Question 20:
Which of the following is a contraindication for laser hair removal?
A. Coarse, dark hair
B. Light skin tone
C. Recent sun exposure or tanning
D. Use of sunscreen
Correct Answer: C. Recent sun exposure or tanning
Explanation: Tanned skin increases the risk of burns during laser treatments due to the higher melanin levels, so sun exposure must be avoided before and after.
Question 21:
Which type of wax is generally used for sensitive areas such as the face, underarms, or bikini line?
A. Strip wax (soft wax)
B. Paraffin wax
C. Hard wax
D. Gel wax
Correct Answer: C. Hard wax
Explanation: Hard wax adheres to hair, not skin, making it gentler on sensitive areas and less likely to cause irritation or bruising.
Question 22:
Which of the following should NOT be done immediately before waxing a client?
A. Cleanse the skin
B. Apply powder
C. Apply oil
D. Trim long hairs
Correct Answer: C. Apply oil
Explanation: Oils can create a barrier that prevents the wax from adhering properly. Skin should be clean and dry before waxing.
Question 23:
When performing a brow wax, what is the best practice to avoid asymmetry or over-waxing?
A. Work quickly without checking
B. Use a stencil
C. Wax one brow completely before starting the other
D. Wax both brows slowly and symmetrically
Correct Answer: D. Wax both brows slowly and symmetrically
Explanation: By working in small, even sections and checking symmetry often, you prevent over-waxing and maintain a balanced look.
Question 24:
What is the recommended hair length for waxing to be most effective?
A. 1/8 inch
B. 1/4 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 1 inch
Correct Answer: B. 1/4 inch
Explanation: Hair needs to be about 1/4 inch long for wax to grip it effectively. Too short, and the wax won’t grab; too long, and it can be painful.
Question 25:
Which of the following is most important to record in the client consultation form before a hair removal service?
A. Favorite waxing scent
B. Skin type and medications
C. Preferred payment method
D. Number of hairs removed last visit
Correct Answer: B. Skin type and medications
Explanation: Knowing the client’s skin type and any medications (e.g., retinoids or blood thinners) helps avoid reactions or skin damage.
Question 26:
Which type of depilatory works by breaking down the protein structure of hair?
A. Laser
B. Sugaring
C. Cream depilatories
D. Wax
Correct Answer: C. Cream depilatories
Explanation: Cream depilatories contain chemicals like calcium thioglycolate that break down keratin in the hair shaft, allowing it to be wiped away.
Question 27:
For best results, what direction should hair be pulled during tweezing?
A. Opposite the direction of growth
B. At a 45-degree angle
C. Toward the direction of hair growth
D. Downward and fast
Correct Answer: C. Toward the direction of hair growth
Explanation: Pulling in the direction of growth minimizes pain and reduces the chance of hair breakage or ingrown hairs.
Question 28:
Which of the following steps prepares the skin before waxing?
A. Exfoliate and moisturize
B. Apply a cold compress
C. Apply talc-free powder or antiseptic
D. Apply glycolic acid
Correct Answer: C. Apply talc-free powder or antiseptic
Explanation: Powder absorbs moisture, while antiseptic cleanses the area—both helping wax adhere better and preventing infection.
Question 29:
What is a potential side effect of waxing on clients with very dry or thin skin?
A. Improved skin texture
B. Hyperpigmentation
C. Skin lifting or tearing
D. Less hair growth
Correct Answer: C. Skin lifting or tearing
Explanation: Dry or thin skin lacks elasticity and moisture, making it more prone to lifting during waxing, which can cause pain or injury.
Question 30:
Which hair removal method is most appropriate for clients with darker skin tones to minimize hyperpigmentation risks?
A. Laser with IPL
B. Electrolysis
C. Waxing with soft wax
D. Shaving
Correct Answer: B. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis targets each follicle individually and doesn’t rely on melanin, making it safe for all skin tones, unlike many lasers which can cause discoloration.
Question 31:
Which hair removal method is considered permanent by the FDA?
A. Waxing
B. Threading
C. Electrolysis
D. Laser hair removal
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis is FDA-approved as a permanent hair removal method. It destroys the hair follicle using electric current.
Question 32:
What type of light-based hair removal targets the melanin in the hair follicle?
A. Electrolysis
B. Galvanic treatment
C. Intense Pulsed Light (IPL)
D. Shaving
Correct Answer: C. Intense Pulsed Light (IPL)
Explanation: IPL and laser hair removal use light to heat melanin in hair, damaging the follicle and reducing growth over time.
Question 33:
Which of the following should be avoided immediately after waxing?
A. Wearing loose-fitting clothing
B. Applying aloe vera
C. Hot baths or saunas
D. Using cool compresses
Correct Answer: C. Hot baths or saunas
Explanation: Heat opens pores and can irritate freshly waxed skin, increasing the risk of infection and inflammation.
Question 34:
Which tool is used to roll and twist cotton thread for removing hair at the follicle level?
A. Wax strip
B. Dermaplane blade
C. Threading string
D. Tweezers
Correct Answer: C. Threading string
Explanation: Threading uses a twisted cotton string to pull out hair, often used on brows, lip, and face.
Question 35:
What is the main disadvantage of using depilatories?
A. They require professional application
B. They are not available in stores
C. They can cause chemical burns or allergic reactions
D. They permanently remove hair
Correct Answer: C. They can cause chemical burns or allergic reactions
Explanation: The chemicals in depilatories can be harsh and may irritate sensitive skin if not properly used or patch-tested.
Question 36:
Which precaution is most important when performing waxing on a client using retinoids or Accutane?
A. Use hot wax only
B. Avoid waxing altogether
C. Only wax the arms
D. Wax gently and slowly
Correct Answer: B. Avoid waxing altogether
Explanation: Retinoids thin the skin, making it fragile and prone to tearing. Waxing should be avoided to prevent injury.
Question 37:
When removing wax, what is the correct angle and direction?
A. Pull at a 90-degree angle, slowly
B. Pull straight upward
C. Pull quickly at a 45-degree angle, parallel to the skin
D. Pull gently toward the hair growth
Correct Answer: C. Pull quickly at a 45-degree angle, parallel to the skin
Explanation: This technique ensures hair removal with minimal pain and reduces skin trauma.
Question 38:
What is the purpose of applying pre-wax oil in hard waxing?
A. To numb the skin
B. To prevent wax from sticking to the skin
C. To increase adhesion
D. To exfoliate the skin
Correct Answer: B. To prevent wax from sticking to the skin
Explanation: Pre-wax oil helps hard wax stick only to the hair, not the skin, making removal gentler and less painful.
Question 39:
What is a contraindication for facial waxing?
A. Normal skin type
B. Sunburn
C. Dry skin
D. Large pores
Correct Answer: B. Sunburn
Explanation: Waxing over sunburned or inflamed skin can worsen irritation and cause skin lifting or damage.
Question 40:
Why is direction of hair growth important in waxing?
A. It reduces the amount of wax needed
B. It helps remove hair faster
C. It prevents re-growth
D. It ensures effective removal and reduces ingrown hairs
Correct Answer: D. It ensures effective removal and reduces ingrown hairs
Explanation: Applying wax with the direction of hair growth and removing against it maximizes effectiveness and minimizes hair breakage and ingrowns.
Question 41:
What type of wax is best for sensitive areas like the bikini line or face?
A. Strip wax
B. Soft wax
C. Cold wax
D. Hard wax
Correct Answer: D. Hard wax
Explanation: Hard wax adheres to hair, not skin, and is gentler on delicate areas. It hardens on its own and is removed without a strip.
Question 42:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of waxing compared to shaving?
A. Smoother skin for longer periods
B. Less frequent maintenance
C. Hair grows back thinner over time
D. Immediate permanent removal
Correct Answer: D. Immediate permanent removal
Explanation: Waxing offers long-lasting but temporary results. Permanent hair removal requires electrolysis or laser.
Question 43:
What is folliculitis, a possible side effect of improper hair removal?
A. An allergic reaction to wax
B. Inflammation of hair follicles
C. Overproduction of sebum
D. A fungal infection
Correct Answer: B. Inflammation of hair follicles
Explanation: Folliculitis appears as red bumps or pustules caused by bacteria entering the follicles, especially after shaving or waxing.
Question 44:
What should be done before waxing to ensure maximum safety and effectiveness?
A. Shave the area
B. Apply a thick moisturizer
C. Clean and dry the skin
D. Rub alcohol into the skin
Correct Answer: C. Clean and dry the skin
Explanation: Proper cleansing removes oils and dirt, allowing wax to adhere better. Moisture can interfere with wax adhesion.
Question 45:
What is the ideal length of hair for waxing to be most effective?
A. 1/8 inch
B. 1/4 inch
C. 1/2 inch
D. 1 inch
Correct Answer: B. 1/4 inch
Explanation: Hair that’s too short may not be grasped effectively by wax; too long can be more painful to remove.
Question 46:
Which government agency regulates waxing product labeling and safety in the U.S.?
A. OSHA
B. CDC
C. FDA
D. EPA
Correct Answer: C. FDA
Explanation: The U.S. Food and Drug Administration regulates cosmetic products, including ingredients and labeling used in waxing.
Question 47:
What is the primary purpose of PPE during hair removal services?
A. Enhancing client comfort
B. Increasing stylist efficiency
C. Reducing the risk of infection
D. Creating a sterile environment
Correct Answer: C. Reducing the risk of infection
Explanation: PPE like gloves and face masks protect both the provider and client from contamination and bloodborne pathogens.
Question 48:
When using tweezers, what is the correct angle to pull out a hair?
A. Straight up from the skin
B. At a 45-degree angle in the direction of hair growth
C. Opposite direction of growth
D. At a 90-degree angle perpendicular to the skin
Correct Answer: B. At a 45-degree angle in the direction of hair growth
Explanation: This method helps remove the hair completely without breaking it and reduces irritation or ingrown hairs.
Question 49:
Which disinfectant level is required for tools like tweezers after use?
A. Low-level sanitation
B. Intermediate antisepsis
C. High-level disinfection
D. Autoclave sterilization only
Correct Answer: C. High-level disinfection
Explanation: Tools used on multiple clients must be cleaned and disinfected with EPA-registered high-level disinfectants.
Question 50:
What should be included in a client consultation before a waxing service?
A. Preferred wax type
B. Medical history, allergies, and medications
C. How often they wax
D. Clothing preferences
Correct Answer: B. Medical history, allergies, and medications
Explanation: A detailed consultation identifies contraindications like blood thinners or retinoids that could cause complications during waxing.
Question 51:
What condition is a contraindication for waxing?
A. Acne
B. Eczema
C. Psoriasis
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Skin conditions like acne, eczema, and psoriasis can be aggravated by waxing. Clients with these issues should avoid hair removal in affected areas.
Question 52:
Which of the following is true about sugaring as a hair removal method?
A. Only works on short hair
B. Uses hot synthetic wax
C. Pulls hair in the direction of growth
D. Is regulated by the FDA
Correct Answer: C. Pulls hair in the direction of growth
Explanation: Sugaring is a natural paste that removes hair in the same direction of growth, reducing breakage and discomfort compared to waxing.
Question 53:
What is the correct procedure if a client bleeds during waxing?
A. Ignore it
B. Apply wax again to stop it
C. Apply pressure and antiseptic, then stop the service if necessary
D. Continue service without informing the client
Correct Answer: C. Apply pressure and antiseptic, then stop the service if necessary
Explanation: Proper infection control is essential. Apply astringent or antiseptic, wear gloves, and document the incident. Stop the service if safety is compromised.
Question 54:
Which of these medications may cause thinning of the skin, increasing waxing risks?
A. Accutane (Isotretinoin)
B. Ibuprofen
C. Tetracycline
D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: A. Accutane (Isotretinoin)
Explanation: Accutane is known for skin thinning, making waxing potentially dangerous. Always ask about retinoid or acne medication use during consultation.
Question 55:
Hair removal performed by inserting a fine needle into the follicle is called:
A. Electrolysis
B. Laser
C. Waxing
D. Threading
Correct Answer: A. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis uses electrical current to destroy the hair follicle permanently. It is the only FDA-approved method for permanent hair removal.
Question 56:
How long should a client avoid sun exposure after a waxing service?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 24–48 hours
D. 5 days
Correct Answer: C. 24–48 hours
Explanation: Waxing removes the top layer of skin, making it more sensitive. UV exposure during this time increases the risk of hyperpigmentation or sunburn.
Question 57:
Which tool is used to maintain sanitation during waxing services?
A. Disposable spatulas
B. Reusable applicators
C. Cotton strips
D. Paper towels
Correct Answer: A. Disposable spatulas
Explanation: Using disposable spatulas prevents double-dipping and cross-contamination. Never reuse wax applicators between clients.
Question 58:
Which type of hair removal originated in South Asia and the Middle East and is gaining popularity in esthetics?
A. Waxing
B. Shaving
C. Threading
D. Laser
Correct Answer: C. Threading
Explanation: Threading is a technique using twisted thread to remove hair, especially effective for shaping eyebrows and facial hair removal.
Question 59:
What does SDS provide information about in waxing products?
A. Marketing materials
B. Ingredient list
C. Health risks, safe handling, and storage
D. Pricing of products
Correct Answer: C. Health risks, safe handling, and storage
Explanation: Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are required by OSHA to inform professionals about hazards, proper handling, and emergency procedures for chemicals used.
Question 60:
What is the final step after completing a waxing procedure?
A. Re-wax leftover areas
B. Clean the wax pot
C. Apply soothing product and document the service
D. Apply makeup over the area
Correct Answer: C. Apply soothing product and document the service
Explanation: Calming gels or creams help reduce irritation. Documenting the service ensures client safety and legal protection for the esthetician.
Chapter 10: Makeup Application and Color Theory
Core Topics:
- Color theory and facial analysis
- Types of cosmetics and their functions
- Makeup tools, hygiene, and application techniques
- Highlighting, contouring, corrective makeup
- Bridal, day, evening, theatrical, and photographic makeup
- Sanitation and infection control in makeup
We’ll now go through 60 PSI-style practice questions with detailed explanations to ensure your mastery of makeup for the esthetics licensing exam.
Question 1:
What does the color wheel help a makeup artist determine?
A. Hair growth cycle
B. Proper eyebrow shaping technique
C. Complementary and contrasting colors
D. How to apply facial wax
Correct Answer: C. Complementary and contrasting colors
Explanation: The color wheel is essential in makeup for understanding how colors relate. Complementary colors are opposite each other and neutralize one another. For example, green concealer cancels red blemishes.
Question 2:
What primary colors are used in all makeup color mixing?
A. Red, Blue, Yellow
B. Green, Purple, Orange
C. Red, Green, Blue
D. Pink, Yellow, Brown
Correct Answer: A. Red, Blue, Yellow
Explanation: Primary colors are the building blocks for all other colors in makeup mixing. They cannot be created by blending other shades.
Question 3:
What is the purpose of foundation in makeup?
A. Set lipstick
B. Provide a protective layer
C. Create a uniform skin tone
D. Tint eyebrows
Correct Answer: C. Create a uniform skin tone
Explanation: Foundation evens out skin tone and provides a base for further makeup application. It enhances the complexion and can also contain skincare benefits.
Question 4:
Which face shape is considered ideal and often used as a reference for contouring?
A. Square
B. Heart
C. Oval
D. Diamond
Correct Answer: C. Oval
Explanation: The oval face is the most balanced and is used as the baseline for contouring and corrective makeup techniques. Contouring on other face shapes often aims to mimic this structure.
Question 5:
What product is used to neutralize discoloration before foundation is applied?
A. Highlighter
B. Toner
C. Color corrector
D. Powder
Correct Answer: C. Color corrector
Explanation: Color correctors are tinted creams that help conceal skin imperfections. For example, peach or orange tones help with blue under-eye circles, and green correctors counteract redness.
Question 6:
Which brush is best for blending eyeshadow?
A. Flat shader
B. Angled liner
C. Fluffy blending brush
D. Lip brush
Correct Answer: C. Fluffy blending brush
Explanation: A fluffy blending brush helps diffuse harsh lines and blend colors smoothly across the eyelid for a seamless look.
Question 7:
What makeup product is used to add shine and moisture to lips?
A. Lip liner
B. Lip balm
C. Lip gloss
D. Lip primer
Correct Answer: C. Lip gloss
Explanation: Lip gloss provides a shiny finish and can be worn alone or over lipstick. It’s especially useful for creating a fuller lip appearance.
Question 8:
Which color is best to reduce the appearance of under-eye circles in fair skin tones?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Purple
Correct Answer: B. Yellow
Explanation: For lighter skin tones, yellow helps cancel out mild blue or purple under-eye tones. Darker circles may require a peach or orange corrector depending on the depth.
Question 9:
Which technique is used to visually narrow the nose?
A. Applying blush to the sides of the nose
B. Highlighting the sides of the nose
C. Contouring the sides and highlighting the center
D. Only highlighting the tip
Correct Answer: C. Contouring the sides and highlighting the center
Explanation: Contouring creates shadows to visually narrow areas. Highlighting the bridge brings light to the center, making the nose appear slimmer and more defined.
Question 10:
What is the main safety concern when using mascara on clients?
A. Smudging
B. Eye irritation or infection
C. Clumping
D. Color mismatch
Correct Answer: B. Eye irritation or infection
Explanation: Mascara wands can harbor bacteria. Always use disposable wands for each client to prevent cross-contamination and protect eye health.
Question 11:
Which product is applied to the face to set foundation and reduce shine?
A. Moisturizer
B. Primer
C. Setting powder
D. Concealer
Correct Answer: C. Setting powder
Explanation: Setting powder locks the foundation in place, reduces oiliness, and extends the wear time of makeup. It comes in loose or pressed form and is applied with a brush or puff.
Question 12:
What is the main purpose of primer in makeup application?
A. Hydrate the skin
B. Add shimmer
C. Create a smooth surface and increase longevity
D. Brighten the lips
Correct Answer: C. Create a smooth surface and increase longevity
Explanation: Primer helps fill in fine lines and pores, creating a smooth canvas for makeup. It also helps makeup last longer by preventing oils from breaking down the foundation.
Question 13:
A client has a warm skin undertone. Which foundation shade family is most suitable?
A. Cool beige
B. Pink ivory
C. Neutral sand
D. Golden tan
Correct Answer: D. Golden tan
Explanation: Warm undertones match best with yellow, gold, or peach-based foundations. Using cool undertones on warm skin can make it appear ashy or mismatched.
Question 14:
Which makeup technique enhances the cheekbones by creating shadow underneath them?
A. Highlighting
B. Baking
C. Contouring
D. Blending
Correct Answer: C. Contouring
Explanation: Contouring uses darker shades to define and shape the face, such as adding shadow below the cheekbones to make them appear more prominent.
Question 15:
What is the correct order of basic makeup application?
A. Powder, foundation, primer, blush
B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder
C. Concealer, foundation, blush, primer
D. Foundation, powder, primer, concealer
Correct Answer: B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder
Explanation: Primer goes first to prep the skin. Foundation creates an even base. Concealer covers any additional imperfections, and powder sets everything in place.
Question 16:
Which lighting condition is ideal for makeup application?
A. Fluorescent lighting
B. Overhead lighting
C. Natural daylight
D. Colored stage lighting
Correct Answer: C. Natural daylight
Explanation: Natural daylight gives the truest representation of skin tone and color. Artificial lighting can distort how makeup appears.
Question 17:
What is the main purpose of eyeliner?
A. Add shimmer to eyelids
B. Moisturize lashes
C. Define and shape the eyes
D. Blend eyeshadow colors
Correct Answer: C. Define and shape the eyes
Explanation: Eyeliner adds definition to the lash line and enhances the shape of the eyes. It can create different looks, from natural to dramatic.
Question 18:
How should makeup brushes be sanitized between clients?
A. Rinse with water only
B. Use alcohol and air dry
C. Wash with soap and water, then disinfect
D. Wipe with a paper towel
Correct Answer: C. Wash with soap and water, then disinfect
Explanation: Brushes should be washed with a gentle cleanser or brush shampoo to remove makeup, then disinfected with an approved agent to kill bacteria.
Question 19:
What is a common allergic reaction to cosmetic products called?
A. Dermatitis
B. Psoriasis
C. Eczema
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: A. Dermatitis
Explanation: Dermatitis is an inflammation of the skin often caused by irritation or an allergic reaction to products. Symptoms may include redness, itching, and swelling.
Question 20:
What is the best makeup recommendation for a client with mature skin?
A. Matte, heavy foundation and dark eyeshadow
B. Lightweight, hydrating products with neutral tones
C. Bright neon colors and glitter
D. No moisturizer, just powder
Correct Answer: B. Lightweight, hydrating products with neutral tones
Explanation: Mature skin benefits from light, hydrating formulas that don’t settle into lines. Neutral tones enhance natural beauty without emphasizing texture.
Would you like to proceed with Questions 21–30 in Chapter 10?
Great! Here’s Chapter 10: Makeup Application and Color Theory, continuing with Questions 21–30, PSI-style with clear explanations.
Question 21:
What color corrector neutralizes redness on the skin?
A. Purple
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
Correct Answer: B. Green
Explanation: Green is opposite red on the color wheel, so it cancels out redness, including blemishes, rosacea, or irritation.
Question 22:
Which product is best for defining eyebrows during a makeup application?
A. Lip liner
B. Concealer
C. Brow pencil or powder
D. Highlighter
Correct Answer: C. Brow pencil or powder
Explanation: Brow pencils or powders fill in sparse areas and shape brows to frame the face. The right shade matches the hair or is slightly lighter for a natural look.
Question 23:
Which skin type requires matte or oil-free foundation formulas?
A. Dry
B. Normal
C. Oily
D. Sensitive
Correct Answer: C. Oily
Explanation: Oily skin benefits from oil-free or matte foundations that help reduce shine and minimize pore appearance throughout the day.
Question 24:
Which eye shadow color is best to enhance blue eyes?
A. Blue
B. Purple
C. Copper or bronze
D. Black
Correct Answer: C. Copper or bronze
Explanation: Warm tones like copper, bronze, and gold contrast blue eyes, making them stand out more vividly.
Question 25:
What tool is commonly used to blend foundation evenly on the skin?
A. Metal spatula
B. Tweezers
C. Beauty sponge or foundation brush
D. Fan brush
Correct Answer: C. Beauty sponge or foundation brush
Explanation: These tools are designed to blend foundation seamlessly for a smooth, natural finish without streaks.
Question 26:
What type of lip product gives the most intense color payoff?
A. Lip balm
B. Lip gloss
C. Lip stain
D. Lipstick
Correct Answer: D. Lipstick
Explanation: Lipsticks provide full color coverage and are available in various finishes (matte, satin, gloss). They’re ideal for bold lip looks.
Question 27:
What is the ideal makeup removal method at the end of a service?
A. Scrubbing with a dry towel
B. Using makeup wipes only
C. Gentle cleanser and warm water
D. Alcohol swab
Correct Answer: C. Gentle cleanser and warm water
Explanation: A gentle cleanser helps remove all makeup without irritating the skin, preserving the skin’s moisture barrier.
Question 28:
Which cosmetic product is commonly used to create the illusion of lifted cheekbones?
A. Lip liner
B. Bronzer
C. Highlighter
D. Mascara
Correct Answer: C. Highlighter
Explanation: Applied to the tops of the cheekbones, highlighter reflects light, enhancing and lifting the face’s natural contours.
Question 29:
Which of the following is a contraindication for makeup services?
A. Freckles
B. Blush preference
C. Active skin infection or open sores
D. Oily T-zone
Correct Answer: C. Active skin infection or open sores
Explanation: Performing makeup services on broken skin or infections risks spreading bacteria and violates sanitation protocols.
Question 30:
What is the term for using contrasting light and dark colors to create dimension and depth in makeup?
A. Blending
B. Sculpting
C. Color blocking
D. Highlighting and contouring
Correct Answer: D. Highlighting and contouring
Explanation: This technique enhances facial features by bringing forward areas with lighter tones and receding others with darker tones.
Question 31:
What is the function of translucent powder in makeup?
A. Adds heavy coverage
B. Hydrates the skin
C. Sets makeup without adding color
D. Acts as a primer
Correct Answer: C. Sets makeup without adding color
Explanation: Translucent powder is colorless and used to set foundation or concealer, preventing creasing and shine while maintaining the natural skin tone.
Question 32:
Which face shape benefits most from adding blush slightly above the apples of the cheeks and blending toward the temples?
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Heart
D. Square
Correct Answer: A. Round
Explanation: Applying blush in this way helps elongate and define a round face, giving it a more sculpted appearance.
Question 33:
For best hygiene, mascara should be discarded after how many months?
A. 2 months
B. 3–4 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Correct Answer: B. 3–4 months
Explanation: Mascara tubes can harbor bacteria due to repeated exposure to the eye area. Replacing every 3–4 months minimizes the risk of infection.
Question 34:
What causes foundation to oxidize and appear darker after application?
A. Expired product
B. Reaction with air and skin oils
C. Low-quality brushes
D. Incorrect powder setting
Correct Answer: B. Reaction with air and skin oils
Explanation: Oxidation occurs when ingredients in the foundation react with oxygen and the skin’s natural oils, leading to a darker appearance over time.
Question 35:
Which type of foundation is best for photography or HD video?
A. Cream to powder
B. Mineral powder
C. Airbrush foundation
D. Tinted moisturizer
Correct Answer: C. Airbrush foundation
Explanation: Airbrush foundation gives a flawless, lightweight finish ideal for high-resolution photography. It creates an even tone without caking.
Question 36:
Which color theory concept explains why purple concealer reduces yellow spots?
A. Warm vs. cool
B. Primary vs. secondary
C. Complementary colors
D. Monochromatic contrast
Correct Answer: C. Complementary colors
Explanation: Complementary colors sit opposite each other on the color wheel and cancel each other out—purple neutralizes yellow.
Question 37:
What brush shape is best suited for precise crease application in eyeshadow?
A. Flat shader
B. Fan
C. Tapered blending
D. Angled brow
Correct Answer: C. Tapered blending
Explanation: A tapered blending brush fits into the crease of the eyelid and allows controlled application of color and smooth blending.
Question 38:
Which of the following is a matte finish characteristic?
A. Shiny and reflective
B. Dewy and glowing
C. Flat and non-reflective
D. Glossy with high shimmer
Correct Answer: C. Flat and non-reflective
Explanation: Matte finishes have no shine, offering a flat look that’s often used to reduce oiliness and highlight textures naturally.
Question 39:
Which cosmetic product is not reused between clients and should be disposable or sanitized thoroughly?
A. Brow brush
B. Lipstick
C. Powder compact
D. Mascara wand
Correct Answer: D. Mascara wand
Explanation: Mascara wands should never be reused between clients. Disposable applicators must be used to avoid eye infections.
Question 40:
Which ingredient in makeup may cause allergic reactions in sensitive skin?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Titanium dioxide
C. Fragrance/parfum
D. Glycerin
Correct Answer: C. Fragrance/parfum
Explanation: Fragrance is a common allergen in cosmetics. Clients with sensitive skin should use fragrance-free or hypoallergenic products.
Question 41:
What is the primary purpose of contouring during makeup application?
A. Add shine to the face
B. Moisturize the skin
C. Create definition and sculpt facial features
D. Brighten under-eye areas
Correct Answer: C. Create definition and sculpt facial features
Explanation: Contouring uses darker shades to create shadows that enhance bone structure and reduce or reshape areas like the jawline or nose.
Question 42:
Which cosmetic product is typically applied last during a full-face makeup application?
A. Foundation
B. Mascara
C. Lipstick
D. Setting spray
Correct Answer: D. Setting spray
Explanation: Setting spray seals in the makeup, helping it last longer and reduce smudging or fading throughout the day.
Question 43:
What undertone is present if a client’s veins appear greenish under natural light?
A. Cool
B. Neutral
C. Warm
D. Olive
Correct Answer: C. Warm
Explanation: Green veins usually indicate warm undertones. This helps determine the best foundation and color palette for the client.
Question 44:
What technique is used to ensure makeup transitions smoothly from one area of the face to another?
A. Layering
B. Patting
C. Blending
D. Dabbing
Correct Answer: C. Blending
Explanation: Blending softens lines between products and shades, creating a seamless and natural finish across the face.
Question 45:
Which of the following is not considered a cream-based product?
A. Liquid foundation
B. Powder blush
C. Cream contour
D. Cream concealer
Correct Answer: B. Powder blush
Explanation: Powder blush is a dry formula, unlike cream-based products, which offer more hydration and are often better for dry skin.
Question 46:
What causes flashback in flash photography when wearing makeup?
A. Oil-based foundation
B. SPF or silica in products
C. Matte eyeshadow
D. Liquid blush
Correct Answer: B. SPF or silica in products
Explanation: SPF and silica reflect light, which can appear as a white cast in photos, especially under strong flash lighting.
Question 47:
What is the best lighting for makeup application?
A. Fluorescent
B. Yellow incandescent
C. Natural daylight
D. Neon
Correct Answer: C. Natural daylight
Explanation: Natural light reveals the true color and texture of makeup, ensuring a more accurate and flattering application.
Question 48:
Which makeup technique is used to brighten under-eye areas and reverse tired appearance?
A. Contouring
B. Tightlining
C. Highlighting
D. Color correcting
Correct Answer: D. Color correcting
Explanation: Color correctors in peach, orange, or yellow tones neutralize blue or purple under-eye discoloration before concealer is applied.
Question 49:
Which product is best for hydrating the lips before applying a matte lipstick?
A. Lip liner
B. Lip gloss
C. Lip balm
D. Lip tint
Correct Answer: C. Lip balm
Explanation: Lip balm moisturizes and preps the lips, helping matte lipstick apply smoothly and preventing cracking or dryness.
Question 50:
Which type of blush is best for dry or mature skin?
A. Powder blush
B. Cream blush
C. Matte blush
D. Gel blush
Correct Answer: B. Cream blush
Explanation: Cream blush provides hydration and a dewy finish that flatters dry or aging skin, unlike powder which can emphasize fine lines.
Question 51:
Which face shape benefits most from applying blush slightly above the apples of the cheeks and blending upward toward the temples?
A. Round
B. Square
C. Heart
D. Oval
Correct Answer: A. Round
Explanation: Applying blush higher and outward on a round face helps elongate the face and create the illusion of lift and structure.
Question 52:
Which brush is typically used to apply powder foundation?
A. Stippling brush
B. Fan brush
C. Flat shader brush
D. Kabuki brush
Correct Answer: D. Kabuki brush
Explanation: A kabuki brush has dense, soft bristles ideal for buffing powder foundation into the skin for even coverage.
Question 53:
What is the primary function of a primer in makeup application?
A. Set the makeup
B. Cleanse the skin
C. Moisturize the skin
D. Prepare the skin for product adherence
Correct Answer: D. Prepare the skin for product adherence
Explanation: Primer smooths the skin surface and helps makeup adhere better and last longer by filling in pores or fine lines.
Question 54:
Which eye shape benefits most from applying a darker shadow to the outer corners to add width?
A. Almond
B. Hooded
C. Close-set
D. Wide-set
Correct Answer: C. Close-set
Explanation: Adding darkness to the outer corners of the eyes helps balance and visually widen close-set eyes.
Question 55:
Which color theory principle suggests that opposite colors cancel each other out?
A. Warm vs. cool
B. Monochromatic
C. Analogous
D. Complementary
Correct Answer: D. Complementary
Explanation: Complementary colors, like green and red or blue and orange, neutralize each other when mixed—useful in color correction and contrast enhancement.
Question 56:
Which of the following products typically contains the highest concentration of pigment?
A. Tinted moisturizer
B. BB cream
C. Liquid foundation
D. Concealer
Correct Answer: D. Concealer
Explanation: Concealers are highly pigmented to effectively cover blemishes, discoloration, and imperfections more than other face products.
Question 57:
What type of eyeliner is most resistant to smudging and best for long-wear looks?
A. Pencil eyeliner
B. Gel eyeliner
C. Liquid eyeliner
D. Waterproof eyeliner
Correct Answer: D. Waterproof eyeliner
Explanation: Waterproof formulas are designed to withstand water, sweat, and long wear without smudging or fading.
Question 58:
Which makeup product can be used to soften or mattify lipstick without changing the color?
A. Highlighter
B. Blush
C. Translucent powder
D. Bronzer
Correct Answer: C. Translucent powder
Explanation: Lightly dabbing translucent powder over lipstick helps remove excess shine and increase longevity without altering color.
Question 59:
Which ingredient in many foundations provides sun protection?
A. Salicylic acid
B. SPF (sunscreen agents)
C. Kaolin clay
D. Retinol
Correct Answer: B. SPF (sunscreen agents)
Explanation: SPF (sun protection factor) ingredients like titanium dioxide or zinc oxide are added to many foundations to protect against UV rays.
Question 60:
Why is it important to use disposable applicators in professional makeup services?
A. To reduce cost
B. To save time
C. To prevent cross-contamination
D. To blend more evenly
Correct Answer: C. To prevent cross-contamination
Explanation: Disposable tools like mascara wands or lip gloss applicators help prevent the spread of bacteria and maintain hygiene in shared-use environments.
Chapter 11: Hair Removal
Core Topics: Waxing, tweezing, shaving, chemical depilatories, electrolysis, laser, contraindications, sanitation, client prep.
This chapter prepares you for PSI theory exam questions related to temporary and permanent hair removal methods, safety standards, and client care protocols.
Below are Questions 1–10, each with detailed explanations to help you master the topic.
Question 1:
Which hair removal method uses a caustic alkali preparation to dissolve hair at the skin surface?
A. Waxing
B. Electrolysis
C. Tweezing
D. Chemical depilatory
Correct Answer: D. Chemical depilatory
Explanation: Depilatories use chemicals to break down the protein structure of the hair, making it easy to wipe away. They’re a fast, non-invasive option but may irritate sensitive skin.
Question 2:
Which method of hair removal removes the hair from the root and often leads to slower regrowth?
A. Shaving
B. Waxing
C. Depilatory cream
D. Dermaplaning
Correct Answer: B. Waxing
Explanation: Waxing pulls the hair from the follicle. This results in smoother skin for 3–6 weeks, depending on the client’s hair growth cycle.
Question 3:
Which of the following is considered a permanent hair removal method?
A. Shaving
B. Threading
C. Electrolysis
D. Waxing
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis uses an electric current to destroy the hair follicle permanently. It is the only FDA-approved method for permanent hair removal.
Question 4:
Laser hair removal is most effective on clients with which of the following characteristics?
A. Blonde hair and dark skin
B. Dark hair and light skin
C. Red hair and light skin
D. Gray hair and medium skin
Correct Answer: B. Dark hair and light skin
Explanation: The laser targets melanin in the hair. High contrast between hair and skin increases effectiveness and reduces the risk of skin damage.
Question 5:
What is the main contraindication for waxing services?
A. Oily skin
B. Hair longer than ¼ inch
C. Use of Retin-A or Accutane
D. Having had a facial 3 days prior
Correct Answer: C. Use of Retin-A or Accutane
Explanation: These medications thin the skin and increase the risk of lifting or tearing during waxing. Always ask about medication history before waxing.
Question 6:
What precaution should be taken before waxing a client’s skin?
A. Apply thick moisturizer
B. Do a patch test
C. Avoid cleansing the area
D. Leave hair long and untouched
Correct Answer: B. Do a patch test
Explanation: A patch test ensures the client is not allergic to the wax or other products used. It helps prevent adverse skin reactions.
Question 7:
When tweezing the eyebrows, in which direction should the hair be pulled?
A. Opposite the direction of growth
B. Straight up
C. Parallel to the skin surface
D. In the direction of hair growth
Correct Answer: D. In the direction of hair growth
Explanation: Pulling in the direction of growth reduces pain and lowers the chance of breaking the hair, ensuring cleaner removal.
Question 8:
After waxing, what should be applied to soothe the skin and reduce irritation?
A. Alcohol
B. Baby oil
C. Aloe vera or witch hazel
D. Salicylic acid
Correct Answer: C. Aloe vera or witch hazel
Explanation: Both are anti-inflammatory and calming, ideal for reducing redness, swelling, and discomfort after waxing.
Question 9:
Which form of hair removal twists and rolls thread across the skin to trap and pull hair from the follicle?
A. Sugaring
B. Threading
C. Electrolysis
D. Dermaplaning
Correct Answer: B. Threading
Explanation: Threading is popular for precise facial hair removal, especially eyebrows. It’s chemical-free and less irritating for sensitive skin types.
Question 10:
How long should hair be for optimal waxing results?
A. ⅛ inch
B. ¼ inch
C. ½ inch
D. 1 inch
Correct Answer: B. ¼ inch
Explanation: Hair that’s about ¼ inch (roughly the length of a grain of rice) allows wax to grip effectively for clean removal.
Question 11:
Which of the following should always be worn during waxing services to prevent cross-contamination?
A. Face mask
B. Gloves
C. Hairnet
D. Goggles
Correct Answer: B. Gloves
Explanation: Gloves protect both the esthetician and the client from bloodborne pathogens and bodily fluid contact, maintaining hygiene and professionalism.
Question 12:
What is the correct procedure if blood is drawn during a waxing service?
A. Ignore it and continue
B. Apply alcohol and a hot towel
C. Stop the service, apply antiseptic, cover with a bandage
D. Pour wax over the area to stop the bleeding
Correct Answer: C. Stop the service, apply antiseptic, cover with a bandage
Explanation: Blood exposure protocols must be followed to protect client and practitioner. Continue only when it’s safe and hygienic.
Question 13:
How often should waxing implements and surfaces be sanitized?
A. Once a day
B. After each client
C. Weekly
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: B. After each client
Explanation: To maintain proper infection control and comply with state board regulations, sanitation must occur between every client.
Question 14:
Which of the following is NOT a temporary hair removal method?
A. Sugaring
B. Tweezing
C. Laser hair removal
D. Shaving
Correct Answer: C. Laser hair removal
Explanation: Laser is classified as a permanent or long-term hair reduction method, while the others provide only temporary results.
Question 15:
What is a key difference between hard wax and soft wax?
A. Soft wax is used for thick hair
B. Hard wax requires strips
C. Hard wax is applied in large areas
D. Soft wax is more gentle on skin
Correct Answer: B. Hard wax does not require strips
Explanation: Hard wax hardens on the skin and is removed without strips, making it ideal for sensitive areas like underarms and the bikini line.
Question 16:
What type of hair removal is best suited for shaping the eyebrows precisely?
A. Shaving
B. Threading
C. Waxing
D. Chemical depilatory
Correct Answer: B. Threading
Explanation: Threading provides clean, precise control for shaping delicate areas like the brows with minimal skin irritation.
Question 17:
Which client is not a good candidate for facial waxing?
A. A client with oily skin
B. A client who had microdermabrasion 24 hours ago
C. A client with coarse hair
D. A client taking vitamin C
Correct Answer: B. A client who had microdermabrasion 24 hours ago
Explanation: The skin is too sensitive and may be damaged by waxing so soon after exfoliating procedures like microdermabrasion.
Question 18:
What is the primary function of talcum powder before waxing?
A. To numb the skin
B. To soften hair
C. To absorb moisture and protect the skin
D. To reduce pain
Correct Answer: C. To absorb moisture and protect the skin
Explanation: Powder helps ensure wax adheres to hair, not skin, and prevents pulling or tearing during wax removal.
Question 19:
What type of hair removal involves inserting a fine probe into the hair follicle to destroy it with electric current?
A. IPL
B. Sugaring
C. Electrolysis
D. Waxing
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis treats each follicle individually with heat or chemical energy, offering permanent hair removal.
Question 20:
What is a common side effect immediately after waxing?
A. Permanent discoloration
B. Hair ingrowth
C. Redness and sensitivity
D. Infection
Correct Answer: C. Redness and sensitivity
Explanation: These effects are normal and temporary due to the hair being pulled from the root. They typically subside within hours.
Question 21:
Which of the following is a contraindication for waxing?
A. Dry skin
B. Recent use of Retin-A
C. Tanned skin
D. Oily skin
Correct Answer: B. Recent use of Retin-A
Explanation: Retin-A (tretinoin) thins the skin, making it more susceptible to tearing during waxing. Clients using Retin-A must avoid waxing in those areas.
Question 22:
What is the purpose of post-waxing oil or lotion?
A. To disinfect the skin
B. To close the pores
C. To soothe and remove wax residue
D. To exfoliate
Correct Answer: C. To soothe and remove wax residue
Explanation: Post-waxing oils help calm the skin and remove any wax left behind, preventing irritation.
Question 23:
What is the most appropriate way to test wax temperature before applying to a client?
A. Dip a cotton swab and touch the client’s skin
B. Use a thermometer
C. Test on your wrist or inner forearm
D. Apply to the back of the client’s neck
Correct Answer: C. Test on your wrist or inner forearm
Explanation: This area is sensitive enough to detect excessive heat and helps prevent burns on clients.
Question 24:
Which of the following should never be double-dipped during a waxing service?
A. Wax stick
B. Wax container lid
C. Strips
D. Spatula handle
Correct Answer: A. Wax stick
Explanation: Double-dipping contaminates the wax and poses serious infection risks. A new stick should be used each time wax is applied.
Question 25:
What is the direction of hair removal in waxing?
A. In the same direction as hair growth
B. Against the direction of hair growth
C. Circular motion
D. Upward at 90 degrees
Correct Answer: B. Against the direction of hair growth
Explanation: Wax is applied in the direction of growth and removed against it to fully extract the hair from the follicle.
Question 26:
Why is it important to hold the skin taut during waxing?
A. To prevent burning
B. To help wax dry faster
C. To reduce discomfort and avoid skin lifting
D. To exfoliate deeper layers
Correct Answer: C. To reduce discomfort and avoid skin lifting
Explanation: Taut skin minimizes pulling and reduces the risk of bruising or tearing delicate skin.
Question 27:
Which hair removal method can be used for clients allergic to wax or with very sensitive skin?
A. Sugaring
B. Electrolysis
C. Depilatories
D. Threading
Correct Answer: D. Threading
Explanation: Threading doesn’t use chemicals or wax and is gentle, making it ideal for clients with allergies or sensitivities.
Question 28:
How long should hair ideally be for effective waxing?
A. 1/8 to 1/4 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 2 inches
Correct Answer: A. 1/8 to 1/4 inch
Explanation: This length ensures wax can grip the hair securely for complete removal from the follicle.
Question 29:
What is the effect of repeatedly waxing the same area over time?
A. Hair grows back thicker
B. Hair becomes finer and may stop growing
C. Hair roots become stronger
D. Skin becomes rougher
Correct Answer: B. Hair becomes finer and may stop growing
Explanation: With repeated waxing, hair growth weakens, leading to finer, sparser regrowth.
Question 30:
Which method of hair removal is regulated by the FDA as a permanent method?
A. Waxing
B. Laser hair removal
C. Electrolysis
D. Threading
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis is the only FDA-approved method for permanent hair removal, as it targets individual hair follicles.
Question 31:
Before performing any hair removal service, what must always be completed?
A. A brow mapping procedure
B. A thorough client consultation and health history
C. A facial massage
D. A hair porosity test
Correct Answer: B. A thorough client consultation and health history
Explanation: This ensures there are no contraindications (such as medications, medical conditions, or skin sensitivities) that could cause adverse reactions during hair removal.
Question 32:
Which hair removal method uses twisted cotton thread to roll over areas of unwanted hair?
A. Sugaring
B. Threading
C. Electrolysis
D. Waxing
Correct Answer: B. Threading
Explanation: Threading is a precise method, popular for shaping eyebrows and removing fine facial hair without the use of chemicals or heat.
Question 33:
Which of the following areas is most sensitive for waxing services?
A. Legs
B. Back
C. Eyebrows
D. Bikini line
Correct Answer: D. Bikini line
Explanation: The bikini area is highly sensitive due to thin skin and a high concentration of nerve endings, requiring extra care during waxing.
Question 34:
A client with psoriasis or eczema on a waxing area should:
A. Proceed as normal
B. Be advised to wax less frequently
C. Use extra powder before waxing
D. Avoid waxing on affected areas
Correct Answer: D. Avoid waxing on affected areas
Explanation: Skin conditions like psoriasis or eczema can be worsened by waxing, increasing the risk of infection and irritation.
Question 35:
Hard wax is typically used for which type of areas?
A. Large areas like legs and back
B. Oily areas only
C. Sensitive, small areas like face or underarms
D. Only for men
Correct Answer: C. Sensitive, small areas like face or underarms
Explanation: Hard wax is gentler and adheres to the hair (not the skin), making it better suited for sensitive or curved areas.
Question 36:
Depilatories are used to:
A. Remove hair by destroying the root
B. Color the hair
C. Remove hair at the skin’s surface using chemicals
D. Wax hair from the follicle
Correct Answer: C. Remove hair at the skin’s surface using chemicals
Explanation: Depilatories dissolve hair above the skin’s surface. They are temporary, fast-acting, but can cause irritation.
Question 37:
Which PPE is most important for an esthetician during waxing?
A. Safety goggles
B. Face mask
C. Gloves
D. Apron
Correct Answer: C. Gloves
Explanation: Gloves protect both the client and esthetician from cross-contamination, especially if skin is broken or blood is drawn.
Question 38:
A patch test for wax is recommended:
A. Every 6 months
B. 24 hours before a first-time waxing
C. Only for body waxing
D. After the waxing service
Correct Answer: B. 24 hours before a first-time waxing
Explanation: A patch test identifies potential allergic reactions or sensitivity to wax, preventing client injury.
Question 39:
Which of the following is not a benefit of waxing?
A. Permanent removal after one session
B. Slower regrowth compared to shaving
C. Finer and sparser regrowth over time
D. Exfoliation of dead skin cells
Correct Answer: A. Permanent removal after one session
Explanation: Waxing offers temporary removal. Only electrolysis is considered permanent by FDA standards.
Question 40:
What is epilation in esthetics?
A. Bleaching the hair
B. Removal of hair from the surface
C. Removal of hair from the follicle
D. Camouflaging hair with makeup
Correct Answer: C. Removal of hair from the follicle
Explanation: Epilation includes methods like waxing, tweezing, and electrolysis—all of which remove hair from the root.
Question 41:
Which of the following is considered a permanent hair removal method?
A. Waxing
B. Sugaring
C. Electrolysis
D. Tweezing
Correct Answer: C. Electrolysis
Explanation: Electrolysis destroys the hair growth cells in the follicle using an electric current, making it the only method recognized by the FDA as permanent.
Question 42:
What is the primary difference between hard wax and soft wax?
A. Hard wax is more painful
B. Soft wax doesn’t require a cloth strip
C. Hard wax removes hair above the skin only
D. Soft wax requires a cloth strip to remove
Correct Answer: D. Soft wax requires a cloth strip to remove
Explanation: Soft wax is applied thinly and removed with a muslin or cloth strip, while hard wax hardens and is pulled off on its own.
Question 43:
What is folliculitis?
A. A hair loss condition
B. Infection of the hair follicle
C. An ingrown nail
D. A fungal skin disorder
Correct Answer: B. Infection of the hair follicle
Explanation: Folliculitis often appears as red, pimple-like bumps and can result from improper waxing technique or lack of sanitation.
Question 44:
Before performing a waxing procedure, what skin preparation step is necessary?
A. Apply cold compress
B. Exfoliate deeply
C. Cleanse and dry the area
D. Apply moisturizer
Correct Answer: C. Cleanse and dry the area
Explanation: Cleansing removes oils, lotions, and bacteria; drying ensures the wax adheres properly to hair, not moisture.
Question 45:
How long should hair be for effective waxing?
A. 1/8 to 1/4 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. Any length is fine
Correct Answer: A. 1/8 to 1/4 inch
Explanation: This length allows wax to grip the hair securely for effective removal from the follicle.
Question 46:
Which client condition is contraindicated for waxing?
A. Dry skin
B. Oily skin
C. Sunburned skin
D. Mature skin
Correct Answer: C. Sunburned skin
Explanation: Waxing sunburned skin can cause lifting, tearing, and extreme irritation due to increased sensitivity.
Question 47:
What should an esthetician do immediately after waxing a client’s brows?
A. Apply toner
B. Apply pressure and a soothing product
C. Use cold wax
D. Apply disinfectant spray
Correct Answer: B. Apply pressure and a soothing product
Explanation: This reduces redness, irritation, and calms the skin after the procedure.
Question 48:
Which direction should you apply wax?
A. In the direction opposite hair growth
B. Circular motions
C. In the direction of hair growth
D. Side to side
Correct Answer: C. In the direction of hair growth
Explanation: Wax adheres better when applied with the grain of the hair. It is then pulled off against the hair growth direction.
Question 49:
Which type of wax is best for clients with sensitive skin?
A. Sugar wax
B. Soft wax
C. Hard wax
D. Cold wax
Correct Answer: C. Hard wax
Explanation: Hard wax adheres to the hair, not the skin, reducing irritation and making it ideal for sensitive areas.
Question 50:
Why is it important to hold the skin taut during waxing?
A. It prevents hair from growing back
B. It speeds up the waxing process
C. It helps reduce pain and prevents skin damage
D. It makes the wax look cleaner
Correct Answer: C. It helps reduce pain and prevents skin damage
Explanation: Taut skin allows cleaner hair removal and minimizes the risk of bruising or tearing delicate skin.
Question 51:
Which of the following hair removal methods uses a pulsed light to destroy the hair bulb?
A. Electrolysis
B. Threading
C. Laser hair removal
D. Sugaring
Correct Answer: C. Laser hair removal
Explanation: Laser hair removal uses concentrated light to target melanin in the hair follicle, reducing hair growth over time.
Question 52:
Which Fitzpatrick skin types are at greater risk of hyperpigmentation from laser hair removal?
A. Types I–II
B. Types III–IV
C. Types V–VI
D. All skin types
Correct Answer: C. Types V–VI
Explanation: Darker skin contains more melanin, which can absorb laser energy and result in pigmentation issues if not properly managed.
Question 53:
Which phase of the hair growth cycle is ideal for laser hair removal?
A. Telogen
B. Catagen
C. Anagen
D. Dormant
Correct Answer: C. Anagen
Explanation: Hair in the active growth (anagen) phase is still attached to the blood supply, making the laser more effective.
Question 54:
Threading is most commonly used on what area?
A. Legs
B. Bikini line
C. Eyebrows and facial hair
D. Arms
Correct Answer: C. Eyebrows and facial hair
Explanation: Threading is precise, fast, and hygienic, making it ideal for facial areas, especially eyebrows and upper lip.
Question 55:
Which ingredient should be avoided before waxing to reduce the risk of skin tearing?
A. Vitamin C
B. Retinol
C. Aloe vera
D. Coconut oil
Correct Answer: B. Retinol
Explanation: Retinol and other exfoliating agents thin the skin, increasing the chance of lifting or injury during waxing.
Question 56:
How frequently should waxing services typically be scheduled for long-term results?
A. Every 3 days
B. Every 1–2 weeks
C. Every 3–6 weeks
D. Every 2 months
Correct Answer: C. Every 3–6 weeks
Explanation: This allows enough time for hair to grow to the optimal length for effective waxing while maintaining smooth results.
Question 57:
Which tool is most important to ensure sanitation during a waxing service?
A. Tweezers
B. Strip cloth
C. Wooden applicator stick
D. Roll-on wax cartridge
Correct Answer: C. Wooden applicator stick
Explanation: Single-use sticks prevent double-dipping and reduce the risk of cross-contamination during waxing.
Question 58:
What is a primary benefit of sugaring over traditional waxing?
A. It can remove hair shorter than 1/16 inch
B. It’s less painful and more natural
C. It causes hair to grow faster
D. It removes the need for PPE
Correct Answer: B. It’s less painful and more natural
Explanation: Sugaring uses natural ingredients and adheres more to hair than skin, making the process gentler and more eco-friendly.
Question 59:
Which part of the hair structure is destroyed in permanent hair removal?
A. Cuticle
B. Cortex
C. Medulla
D. Hair papilla
Correct Answer: D. Hair papilla
Explanation: The papilla contains the blood supply and nutrients for the hair; destroying it prevents future growth.
Question 60:
Which professional standard is required before performing any hair removal service?
A. CPR certification
B. Physician approval
C. Sanitation and client consultation
D. Business license
Correct Answer: C. Sanitation and client consultation
Explanation: Proper sanitation prevents infection, and consultations identify contraindications or concerns before service begins.
Chapter 12: Makeup Application & Color Theory
Core Topics:
- Color theory (primary, secondary, tertiary colors)
- Face shapes and corrective techniques
- Makeup tools and hygiene
- Types of makeup (foundation, concealer, powder, blush, eye, lip)
- Application order and sanitation practices
We’ll begin with 60 PSI-style questions with multiple-choice answers and thorough explanations.
Question 1:
What are the three primary colors in color theory?
A. Red, blue, green
B. Red, yellow, blue
C. Blue, yellow, orange
D. Red, green, violet
Correct Answer: B. Red, yellow, blue
Explanation: These three cannot be created by mixing other colors. They serve as the foundation for all other hues in the color wheel.
Question 2:
Mixing equal parts of two primary colors results in a:
A. Primary color
B. Neutral color
C. Secondary color
D. Cool color
Correct Answer: C. Secondary color
Explanation: For example, red + yellow = orange, yellow + blue = green, blue + red = violet.
Question 3:
Which face shape is considered the ideal face shape in makeup artistry?
A. Round
B. Heart
C. Oval
D. Square
Correct Answer: C. Oval
Explanation: The oval shape is considered balanced and proportional, often used as the standard for corrective makeup techniques.
Question 4:
Which type of brush is best for applying powder?
A. Flat brush
B. Fan brush
C. Fluffy dome-shaped brush
D. Angled liner brush
Correct Answer: C. Fluffy dome-shaped brush
Explanation: This brush distributes powder evenly for a smooth, matte finish.
Question 5:
A warm undertone is usually associated with:
A. Blue veins, porcelain skin
B. Pink skin and red hair
C. Yellow or golden skin tones
D. Gray or ash-toned hair
Correct Answer: C. Yellow or golden skin tones
Explanation: Warm undertones are best complemented by gold, peach, and warm shades in makeup.
Question 6:
What makeup product is used to neutralize dark under-eye circles?
A. Green concealer
B. Yellow concealer
C. Orange or peach concealer
D. White highlighter
Correct Answer: C. Orange or peach concealer
Explanation: Orange-based correctors counteract blue and purple tones in dark under-eye areas.
Question 7:
Which type of foundation is best for oily skin?
A. Cream foundation
B. Stick foundation
C. Mineral or powder foundation
D. Tinted moisturizer
Correct Answer: C. Mineral or powder foundation
Explanation: These formulations absorb excess oil and provide a matte finish ideal for oily skin types.
Question 8:
What is the first step in a professional makeup application?
A. Applying primer
B. Foundation
C. Skin analysis and cleansing
D. Eyeshadow application
Correct Answer: C. Skin analysis and cleansing
Explanation: Prepping the skin ensures clean, even application and reduces the risk of irritation or infection.
Question 9:
What color corrector is best for covering redness or rosacea?
A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Violet
Correct Answer: C. Green
Explanation: Green cancels out red tones in the skin, helping to neutralize inflammation or blemishes.
Question 10:
Which of the following is a sanitary guideline during makeup application?
A. Double-dipping in cream products
B. Using fingers for lip color
C. Spraying alcohol directly on skin
D. Using a disposable applicator
Correct Answer: D. Using a disposable applicator
Explanation: This minimizes contamination and is required for hygienic, safe practices.
Question 11:
Which tool is ideal for blending eyeshadow seamlessly?
A. Flat shader brush
B. Pencil brush
C. Tapered blending brush
D. Angled liner brush
Correct Answer: C. Tapered blending brush
Explanation: The fluffy, tapered shape allows smooth transitions between shades for a professional eyeshadow look.
Question 12:
What type of foundation provides the most buildable coverage and is great for photography?
A. Liquid foundation
B. Stick foundation
C. Mineral foundation
D. Tinted moisturizer
Correct Answer: A. Liquid foundation
Explanation: Liquid foundations can be layered easily and provide a smooth, photo-ready finish with adjustable coverage.
Question 13:
Which face shape benefits from applying contour on the sides of the forehead and under cheekbones to create balance?
A. Round
B. Square
C. Heart
D. Long
Correct Answer: A. Round
Explanation: Contouring these areas creates an illusion of a slimmer, more defined face.
Question 14:
What is the purpose of a setting spray in makeup application?
A. To exfoliate the skin
B. To prime the eyelids
C. To lock makeup in place
D. To mattify the skin before foundation
Correct Answer: C. To lock makeup in place
Explanation: Setting spray is used as the final step to extend makeup wear and help it resist sweat and humidity.
Question 15:
Which of the following should never be used to clean makeup brushes?
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol
B. Baby shampoo
C. Acetone
D. Brush cleanser
Correct Answer: C. Acetone
Explanation: Acetone is too harsh and can damage brush bristles and irritate the skin.
Question 16:
If a client has deep-set eyes, which eye makeup technique is most flattering?
A. Use dark shadow on the entire lid
B. Highlight only the inner corner
C. Use lighter colors on the lid and contour the crease gently
D. Apply heavy eyeliner on the top and bottom
Correct Answer: C. Use lighter colors on the lid and contour the crease gently
Explanation: Lighter lids open the eyes, and soft crease shading enhances natural depth without overwhelming the shape.
Question 17:
Which lip shape may benefit from lining slightly outside the natural border to create balance?
A. Full lips
B. Uneven lips
C. Small lips
D. Downturned lips
Correct Answer: C. Small lips
Explanation: Slight overlining creates the illusion of fuller, more balanced lips when done subtly.
Question 18:
What is the correct order of makeup application for a full face?
A. Foundation, powder, concealer, eyeshadow
B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder, eye makeup
C. Eye makeup, concealer, primer, foundation
D. Moisturizer, concealer, foundation, lipstick
Correct Answer: B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder, eye makeup
Explanation: This order ensures an even base, good coverage, and avoids fallout ruining previously applied products.
Question 19:
What is a key sanitary precaution when applying mascara?
A. Use the wand provided in the tube
B. Use the same brush between clients
C. Use a disposable spoolie
D. Wipe wand on a tissue
Correct Answer: C. Use a disposable spoolie
Explanation: Reusable mascara wands pose cross-contamination risks. Disposable spoolies ensure hygiene and client safety.
Question 20:
Which makeup product is most likely to contain mineral oil, which can clog pores?
A. Lipstick
B. Liquid eyeliner
C. Setting spray
D. Powder foundation
Correct Answer: A. Lipstick
Explanation: Many lipsticks include emollients like mineral oil. Non-comedogenic options are better for acne-prone users.
Question 21:
What is the best lighting condition for applying makeup to ensure accurate color matching?
A. Fluorescent light
B. Natural daylight
C. Incandescent light
D. LED with a warm hue
Correct Answer: B. Natural daylight
Explanation: Natural daylight offers the most accurate representation of colors and textures, helping artists avoid over- or under-applying products.
Question 22:
Which color theory principle is used to neutralize redness in the skin?
A. Apply blue-tinted primer
B. Use yellow foundation
C. Apply green-tinted concealer
D. Add pink blush
Correct Answer: C. Apply green-tinted concealer
Explanation: Green is opposite red on the color wheel, so it cancels out redness such as rosacea or blemishes.
Question 23:
What part of the face is typically highlighted to enhance dimension?
A. Under the cheekbones
B. Along the jawline
C. Bridge of the nose
D. Temples
Correct Answer: C. Bridge of the nose
Explanation: Highlighting the bridge of the nose brings light to the center of the face, creating a lifted, more defined look.
Question 24:
Which makeup product should be avoided on clients with acne-prone skin?
A. Water-based primer
B. Oil-free foundation
C. Mineral powder
D. Heavy cream foundation with comedogenic ingredients
Correct Answer: D. Heavy cream foundation with comedogenic ingredients
Explanation: These types of products may clog pores and exacerbate breakouts. Non-comedogenic formulations are ideal.
Question 25:
What is the purpose of eyebrow grooming during a makeup service?
A. To remove facial hair
B. To shape and define the eye area
C. To lift the cheeks
D. To add more color to the face
Correct Answer: B. To shape and define the eye area
Explanation: Properly groomed brows frame the face and eyes, creating symmetry and enhancing facial features.
Question 26:
What is the term for a color’s intensity or brightness?
A. Hue
B. Shade
C. Saturation
D. Value
Correct Answer: C. Saturation
Explanation: Saturation refers to how vivid or muted a color appears. High saturation equals bright, bold colors.
Question 27:
What tool is best for applying cream blush for a natural finish?
A. Powder puff
B. Flat foundation brush
C. Fingers or stippling brush
D. Eyeliner brush
Correct Answer: C. Fingers or stippling brush
Explanation: Fingers help warm and blend cream blush into the skin, while stippling brushes give an airbrushed effect.
Question 28:
Which of the following is a cool undertone in foundation selection?
A. Golden
B. Peach
C. Pink
D. Olive
Correct Answer: C. Pink
Explanation: Cool undertones have hints of pink, red, or blue. They suit individuals with bluish veins or who look best in silver.
Question 29:
Which is the best eye shadow color for brown eyes to enhance richness?
A. Light gray
B. Blue
C. Bronze
D. Cool lavender
Correct Answer: C. Bronze
Explanation: Bronze, copper, and warm metallic tones complement brown eyes and make them appear deeper and more radiant.
Question 30:
What’s the main reason for using color-correcting concealers before foundation?
A. To make the skin look more tanned
B. To eliminate shine
C. To neutralize discolorations before applying foundation
D. To set the foundation in place
Correct Answer: C. To neutralize discolorations before applying foundation
Explanation: Color correction balances skin tone by canceling out imperfections like dark circles or redness, allowing foundation to glide on more evenly.
Question 31:
What is the purpose of setting powder in a makeup application?
A. To moisturize the skin
B. To intensify color
C. To absorb oil and set the makeup
D. To exfoliate the skin
Correct Answer: C. To absorb oil and set the makeup
Explanation: Setting powder helps keep foundation and concealer in place, reduces shine, and increases makeup longevity.
Question 32:
Which lip shape correction technique is used when lips are uneven?
A. Overline the smaller side only
B. Fill in both lips entirely with gloss
C. Apply a darker lipstick
D. Avoid using any lip liner
Correct Answer: A. Overline the smaller side only
Explanation: Adjusting only the smaller lip side helps balance and create symmetry without exaggerating the full side.
Question 33:
Which face shape benefits most from contouring the sides of the forehead and jawline?
A. Oval
B. Square
C. Round
D. Heart
Correct Answer: C. Round
Explanation: Contouring those areas helps add dimension and make the face appear slimmer and more structured.
Question 34:
What is the best practice when matching foundation to a client’s skin tone?
A. Match to the forehead
B. Match to the hand
C. Match to the jawline
D. Match to the neck
Correct Answer: C. Match to the jawline
Explanation: The jawline provides a more accurate representation of the overall facial skin tone and ensures a seamless blend.
Question 35:
Which of the following is an example of a warm undertone?
A. Yellow
B. Pink
C. Blue
D. Purple
Correct Answer: A. Yellow
Explanation: Warm undertones include yellow, golden, and peachy hues. These tones typically suit individuals who tan easily.
Question 36:
What is the correct order of application for face makeup?
A. Powder → Foundation → Concealer
B. Moisturizer → Primer → Foundation → Concealer
C. Concealer → Primer → Foundation
D. Foundation → Powder → Moisturizer
Correct Answer: B. Moisturizer → Primer → Foundation → Concealer
Explanation: This sequence preps the skin, smooths texture, applies even coverage, and then conceals any remaining imperfections.
Question 37:
Which cosmetic product is most likely to contain mica for a shimmery effect?
A. Lip balm
B. Matte powder
C. Highlighter
D. Eyelash glue
Correct Answer: C. Highlighter
Explanation: Mica adds a luminous sheen, commonly used in highlighters and shimmer shadows to reflect light and add glow.
Question 38:
How should makeup brushes be cleaned to prevent cross-contamination?
A. Weekly with warm water only
B. Biweekly using a brush sanitizing spray
C. After each use with soap and water or cleanser
D. Monthly using acetone
Correct Answer: C. After each use with soap and water or cleanser
Explanation: Proper sanitation is key in preventing bacterial growth and skin infections, especially in professional settings.
Question 39:
What’s the primary purpose of a primer in makeup?
A. To highlight facial features
B. To set makeup
C. To prep the skin and improve foundation adhesion
D. To cleanse the pores
Correct Answer: C. To prep the skin and improve foundation adhesion
Explanation: Primer creates a smooth base, minimizes pores, and helps makeup last longer without slipping or fading.
Question 40:
Which eye shape benefits from applying darker shadow on the outer corners to lift the appearance?
A. Deep-set eyes
B. Hooded eyes
C. Almond eyes
D. Wide-set eyes
Correct Answer: B. Hooded eyes
Explanation: Placing darker shadow on the outer corners adds dimension and opens up hooded eyes by visually lifting the lid.
Question 41:
Which makeup tool is best for applying liquid foundation evenly?
A. Fan brush
B. Beauty sponge or foundation brush
C. Powder puff
D. Spoolie
Correct Answer: B. Beauty sponge or foundation brush
Explanation: A beauty sponge or dense foundation brush ensures even, streak-free application of liquid foundation and allows for blending into the skin smoothly.
Question 42:
A cool undertone in a client’s skin would best match with which foundation base?
A. Yellow or golden base
B. Pink or rosy base
C. Orange-toned base
D. Olive base
Correct Answer: B. Pink or rosy base
Explanation: Cool undertones pair well with pink-based foundations to neutralize any blue or red hues and create a natural look.
Question 43:
What is the purpose of color correcting in makeup application?
A. To blend lip color
B. To match foundation
C. To neutralize discoloration
D. To highlight the face
Correct Answer: C. To neutralize discoloration
Explanation: Color correctors are used before foundation to cancel out skin discolorations like redness, dark circles, or sallowness, allowing for a more even base.
Question 44:
Green color corrector is used to cover which of the following?
A. Hyperpigmentation
B. Redness or blemishes
C. Dark circles
D. Yellow undertones
Correct Answer: B. Redness or blemishes
Explanation: Green neutralizes red tones, so it’s ideal for concealing acne, rosacea, or irritation on the skin.
Question 45:
What is the main difference between cream and powder blush?
A. Cream blush is only for dry skin
B. Powder blush gives a dewy finish
C. Cream blush blends into skin and gives a natural glow
D. Powder blush clogs pores
Correct Answer: C. Cream blush blends into skin and gives a natural glow
Explanation: Cream blush melts into the skin and offers a more luminous, hydrated finish compared to the matte effect of powder blush.
Question 46:
Which of the following is a highlighting technique?
A. Applying bronzer on cheekbones
B. Using matte powder on forehead
C. Placing shimmer above the cheekbones and down the nose
D. Contouring under the chin
Correct Answer: C. Placing shimmer above the cheekbones and down the nose
Explanation: Highlighting brings forward features and is commonly done on high points of the face with a light-reflective product.
Question 47:
What is a cut crease in eye makeup?
A. A technique to hide the eyelid
B. A style where the crease is sharply defined using contrasting color
C. A tool for applying eyeliner
D. A type of foundation blending
Correct Answer: B. A style where the crease is sharply defined using contrasting color
Explanation: A cut crease makes the eyelid look larger and more dramatic by creating a clear contrast between lid and crease.
Question 48:
Why is lash curling done before mascara application?
A. To make mascara dry faster
B. To lift and define lashes without clumping
C. To clean lashes
D. To remove old mascara
Correct Answer: B. To lift and define lashes without clumping
Explanation: Curling lashes before applying mascara prevents lash breakage and enhances eye appearance by opening up the eyes.
Question 49:
What is tightlining in eye makeup?
A. Applying mascara to the top lashes
B. Applying liner to the waterline of the upper eyelid
C. Drawing a thick line above the lashes
D. Using liquid liner to create a cat-eye
Correct Answer: B. Applying liner to the waterline of the upper eyelid
Explanation: Tightlining subtly enhances the lash line by filling in gaps between lashes for a fuller appearance.
Question 50:
Why is it important to consider a client’s natural brow shape during shaping or makeup?
A. To avoid waxing
B. To eliminate the need for mascara
C. To enhance facial balance and symmetry
D. To match the lip color
Correct Answer: C. To enhance facial balance and symmetry
Explanation: Natural brow shapes complement the client’s facial structure. Enhancing without over-altering creates harmony in the overall appearance.
Question 51:
Which type of lip product typically has the longest wear time?
A. Lip gloss
B. Tinted lip balm
C. Cream lipstick
D. Liquid matte lipstick
Correct Answer: D. Liquid matte lipstick
Explanation: Liquid matte lipsticks are formulated to dry down completely, making them long-wearing and resistant to smudging or transfer compared to other formulas.
Question 52:
What is the function of translucent setting powder in makeup?
A. To hydrate the skin
B. To increase shine
C. To set makeup and reduce shine
D. To provide full coverage
Correct Answer: C. To set makeup and reduce shine
Explanation: Translucent powder locks in liquid and cream products and controls oil, helping the makeup last longer without adding additional color.
Question 53:
Which part of the face is typically contoured to create the illusion of a slimmer face?
A. Bridge of the nose
B. Apples of the cheeks
C. Sides of the forehead and under cheekbones
D. Eyelids
Correct Answer: C. Sides of the forehead and under cheekbones
Explanation: Contouring these areas with darker shades creates depth, helping the face appear slimmer and more defined.
Question 54:
What is the best brush type for applying powder blush?
A. Angled blush brush
B. Fan brush
C. Stiff dome foundation brush
D. Lip brush
Correct Answer: A. Angled blush brush
Explanation: Angled brushes are designed to fit the contours of the cheeks, allowing for precise and natural-looking application of blush.
Question 55:
Why should makeup artists use disposable applicators for products like mascara and lip gloss?
A. To reduce product waste
B. To apply faster
C. To maintain sanitation and prevent contamination
D. To improve pigment payoff
Correct Answer: C. To maintain sanitation and prevent contamination
Explanation: Disposable applicators ensure that bacteria are not transferred between clients, protecting client health and following safety regulations.
Question 56:
What color eyeshadow would enhance blue eyes the most?
A. Cool blue
B. Silver
C. Copper or warm brown
D. White
Correct Answer: C. Copper or warm brown
Explanation: Warm tones like copper contrast with blue, making the eye color stand out more vibrantly.
Question 57:
What is the correct order of makeup application for a basic full-face look?
A. Concealer, foundation, powder, primer
B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder
C. Foundation, powder, primer, concealer
D. Powder, primer, concealer, foundation
Correct Answer: B. Primer, foundation, concealer, powder
Explanation: Primer preps the skin, followed by foundation for overall coverage, then concealer for targeted correction, and finally powder to set the look.
Question 58:
Which term refers to how light or dark a color is in makeup?
A. Hue
B. Tone
C. Shade
D. Value
Correct Answer: D. Value
Explanation: In color theory, value measures the lightness or darkness of a color, which is critical in determining how a color will appear on different skin tones.
Question 59:
What is the undertone of someone whose veins appear green under natural light?
A. Cool
B. Neutral
C. Warm
D. Blue
Correct Answer: C. Warm
Explanation: Green-looking veins typically indicate warm undertones, suggesting a yellow or golden cast to the skin.
Question 60:
Which product is commonly used to prime eyelids before applying eye shadow?
A. Lip gloss
B. Concealer or eyeshadow primer
C. Blush
D. Highlighter
Correct Answer: B. Concealer or eyeshadow primer
Explanation: These products create a smooth base that helps eyeshadow adhere better, prevents creasing, and enhances pigment intensity.
The End
Thank You
“To touch beauty is to honor life. To master your craft is to serve with love. And to rise, even after failure, is to lead by example. May this book be your guide, but may your heart be your true teacher.” –
Di Tran
Founder, Di Tran Enterprise
